Recent content by Frank

The study of Adams et al. is non-sense because : 1) They are assuming any haplogroup from the near-east is Sehpardic, when it just entered in Neolithic times like in the rest of Europe, actually Iberia has relatively low levels of these haplogroup compared to the rest of Europe. 2) They are...

At the bottom of the page you have all the sources that have been used to make that table of haplogroup frequencies. : http://www.eupedia.com/europe/origins_haplogroups_europe.shtml#Sources

http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v466/n7303/abs/nature09103.html

But this wouldn't explain why autosomally the Iberians have the highest North-European levels of all Southern Europe (see genetic projects such as Dodecad or Eurogenes).

Some spot areas of Northern Portugal and Galicia have reported 6-12% of I1, i'll try to find later.

Well, Northern Portugal has 4-5% and Asturias about 4% : http://iberianroots.com/statistics/iberian_peninsula.html

Because in this run they appear much more Eastern european, they have near 70% East Euro, it's actually where it peaks, in Lithuanian

It has probably to do with the Indo-Aryan and indo-euroepan invasions. That's why you also see a lot of R1a in those areas.

It has already been said that Western includes also Northern euroepan, since it peaks in Scandinavians, and the european components are only West/East/Med