who were Slavic people?

hmmm
seems like How Yes No find The Creco Aryan Approach, which fits better withancient civilizations, and overpass the Kurgan theory that fits modern times,
seems like genetic searches proves the Greco aryan

According that
G is the far ancient proto aryan speaking,
G gave language and culture to I and J and R1b of minor asia
J dna moved to levant and from them to mediterrean as pelasgic etrurian naval
I dna moved to Balkans as Thracian and from there spread North by foot
an ancient R1a is different than medieval R1a ?
I haven't found a good R1a explanation for Greece and Balkans

probably some of them were hunters of a Holy animal
Like Vikings moved to Iceland in search for holy Fish Salmon
some others were after Aurochs
The aurochs or urus (Bos primigenius), the ancestor of domestic cattle, was a type of huge wild cattle which inhabited Europe, Asia and North Africa, but is now extinct; it survived in Europe until 1627.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aurochs

auroch fits suitable with greek-pelasgic tauros(h) and latin taurus
Aurochs were also known to have very aggressive temperaments and killing one was seen as a great act of courage in ancient cultures (bullfights)
The Swiss canton Uri was actually named after this animal species.
Uri - Churi etc
the paradise Urim is a phrase that Cristians say for happy times
the name Bos - auroch Bos is after Greek-Thracian Βους of koine, from ancient Bol-inthros,
probably there was a tribe or a nation that hunt them, as Indians the american Bisson
but i can not connect it with any Dna,
But crimea area had also name Taurica means auroch land, and argonauts had a bulls head trade mark in sails as good luck,
and many sacrifices as much as 100 bulls in a time, in troyan wars


Now back to theme, I believe that I Dna is the aryan branch that spread in inland Europe before, create cultures, upon which later R1a rulers came, so R1a accepted mainly local language and spread its own words, creating new languages,
the many devastasions of the roman empire fall simply was a fast but before, a connection of I Dna people (proto-slavic speaking) with R1a (baltic) before gothic movements and vikings invasions in Ucraine create a culture that connects linguistic both, in fact the linguistic truth is after Cyrill and Method who unify better differences, and create a Balto-slavic koine which is an artificial language upon living languages, just to purify differences, of older tribals mate, sharing same land and culture.

so for me, although I accepted before the R1a are the slav people, slavic language is the I2 dna language and R1a speakers were more baltic,
and I still believe that thracian is a pre and proto slavic
 
Just a few questions on the slavs as I find the issue of language to use as a fact on a races heritage very silly.

Q1. Is the slavic serbian language 100% the same as the slavic language of Bulgaria, Croatia, Slovenian, Slovak, Poland , Russia etc etc etc? If not then we can assume that as the slavs entered into territory foreign to them , the slavs that entered, bulgaria or damatia etc etc would have accepted into their vocabulary hundreds of words from the area they settled.
This is the most logical answer. So to say that a slavic word is the same as one from a region means that the slavs where here a long time OR even worse still that they where originally slavs.

An example, a landlocked race who migrates to an area by the ocean and tasty salty water would have taken the name of this ocean from the local people they met.

This brings me to the Illyrian, Venetic, Trojan, Thracian, Epirote, Macedonian, Dardanian, Paeonian, odyssian to name a few , peoples that originated in the balkans and italy. These people where the original people.
To say any a slavic in the ancient times is pure speculation.

In the map of a previous post , the map noted as 500AD , we can see the Ostrogoth control of the italy and ancient illyria, this is where the I2a2 came from, and this is where the slavs inherited this DNA.

Q2. How many people in percentage and for how long ( generations)a period does it take to accept a DNA into ones society/race?

Q3. Let us not use linguistics to determine once race be it modern times or ancient times or else we can say the veneti are french as in apple in French is pom, in venetian its pomo and in Italian its mela. or that the English are veneti for using the venetian word of arsenale ( arsenal) or balot ( ballot) to name a few
 
I can reply only to Q1 : All Slavic languages in the Middle Ages were very close and mutually understandable. The standard was established from the old Bulgarian - linguists call this language the Slavonic.
The Slavonic was used for translation of the holy books and permitted orthodox christianism has spread through the Slavic speaking countries starting from X c.

Regarding the Thracian words entering the Bulgarian - from the few words known to be Thracian - I can't see ANY relation at all with the Bulgarian.
We must be very careful about any research trying to prove the contrary because since the communist era some enthusiastic Bulgarian authors are trying to prove relation with the mighty Thracians to embellish the national identity of Bulgarians.

Of course many Latin and Greek words entered the Bulgarian language probably since the VII c and later. Did they trough assimilation of local inhabitants or from the vicinity of the East Roman Empire? It's very hard to tell.
 
Just a few questions on the slavs as I find the issue of language to use as a fact on a races heritage very silly.

Q1. Is the slavic serbian language 100% the same as the slavic language of Bulgaria, Croatia, Slovenian, Slovak, Poland , Russia etc etc etc? If not then we can assume that as the slavs entered into territory foreign to them , the slavs that entered, bulgaria or damatia etc etc would have accepted into their vocabulary hundreds of words from the area they settled.
This is the most logical answer. So to say that a slavic word is the same as one from a region means that the slavs where here a long time OR even worse still that they where originally slavs.

An example, a landlocked race who migrates to an area by the ocean and tasty salty water would have taken the name of this ocean from the local people they met.

This brings me to the Illyrian, Venetic, Trojan, Thracian, Epirote, Macedonian, Dardanian, Paeonian, odyssian to name a few , peoples that originated in the balkans and italy. These people where the original people.
To say any a slavic in the ancient times is pure speculation.

In the map of a previous post , the map noted as 500AD , we can see the Ostrogoth control of the italy and ancient illyria, this is where the I2a2 came from, and this is where the slavs inherited this DNA.

Q2. How many people in percentage and for how long ( generations)a period does it take to accept a DNA into ones society/race?

Q3. Let us not use linguistics to determine once race be it modern times or ancient times or else we can say the veneti are french as in apple in French is pom, in venetian its pomo and in Italian its mela. or that the English are veneti for using the venetian word of arsenale ( arsenal) or balot ( ballot) to name a few

to first question is a remarkable,
in Bulgaria the Balkars that invade are considered Huns - Ogurs
not a massive slavic invasion is mentioned in Bulgaria, as it is mentioned in Serbia,
R1a which is considered slavic Dna is very small in south slavic to change language in 200 years from invasions times to Cyrill & Method times,
But in Bu;garia which is considered Slavic, as also in Romania we find thracian words, that can be considred as proto-slavic, as also the Dinaric-Illyrian ancient languages,

Probably From Herodotus times perhaps but surely in Strabon times I2 Dna people who spoke dialects of Thracian or Venedi lived next to R1a people (clear slavic Dna but with language more baltic), >700 years are enough to create dialects that are based in both languages.
so when Cyrill & method create the Alphabet also create a language that can be understood by both, due to co-exist, the balto-slavic,
the new language of cyrill and method was imported to every slavic and baltic speaking nations when accepted christianity,
that is why in Bulgaria where mainly entered the Balkars (huns) speak a dialect of slavic, before christianity, they had pre-slavic language (south Thracian dialect or remnants from Veneti walk through) and after they accepted the baltic elements and became more slavic in area were slavic invasions are not to be mentioned as wide devastation,
that means that cyrill & method Bible was a purification of ex slavic and baltic to mainly a new language common,
when a written language exists, linguists and rulers and people use the written and do not assimilate foreign,
it is imposible a 5 10 15% to change language of rest, except if the people already are familiar to a big % of that language.
so probably slavic R1a people lived, from strabo times, and perhaps before from Herodotus time, next each other with I2 people in north of Carpathia mt

the second part nations you say are the Pelasgians, pelasgians are considered Aryans non IE, pelasgian language relics can be found mainly in Greek, but also in Latin due to Etruscans, etc,
the 3rd and the Key is thracians.
probably thracians lived from ucraine to Greece,
Greek language koine is a mix of Thracian Pelasgian and Hettit-Luwan-Anatolian,
now about Venedi people I am not sure, and not familiar, but I know that they moved to areas of today Hungary Before Huns invasions, from areas of today slovenia, but they mainly passed balkans in ancient times from minor asia,
i don't want to say anything more cause i m not familiar to their story and language,

sorry i haven't understand your question,
dna is not accepted by a society, language religion, customs are accepted,
the more years and the more common memory, the more is accepted,
as an example the grinco in spainish, means foreigner, but comes from Greek colonization times, when the Iberians met the Greeks and the word Grinco is simmilar to stranger, (grico are the Greeks in Magna Grecia)
 
I can reply only to Q1 : All Slavic languages in the Middle Ages were very close and mutually understandable. The standard was established from the old Bulgarian - linguists call this language the Slavonic.
The Slavonic was used for translation of the holy books and permitted orthodox christianism has spread through the Slavic speaking countries starting from X c.

Regarding the Thracian words entering the Bulgarian - from the few words known to be Thracian - I can't see ANY relation at all with the Bulgarian.
We must be very careful about any research trying to prove the contrary because since the communist era some enthusiastic Bulgarian authors are trying to prove relation with the mighty Thracians to embellish the national identity of Bulgarians.

Of course many Latin and Greek words entered the Bulgarian language probably since the VII c and later. Did they trough assimilation of local inhabitants or from the vicinity of the East Roman Empire? It's very hard to tell.


yes but old church slavonic is based upon slavic Koine of Cyrill,
to understand what I say, slavic people had Bible from 800 Bc in a simmilar to their own language although artificial by 2 monks, when Germans had in 1500 AD by M. Luther, when nations have written words they assimilate and they learn them if they sound familiar to them, so older elements are going to be lost,
as an example word Bog is same to all slavic,
we don't know if serbians had exact the word Bog, and polland also, and ucraine also,
before cyrill, cause they might use words like Vog, Bogu, Boka etc,
but after cyrill all use Bog,

Now about ancient Thracian, I know the difference of Daci-Moesians with Bulgarians and Greeks, in ancient thracian relicks like rings we found Greek alphabet, but not greek words, like the ring, the ring has another translation in dacian-thracian, another in Greek (polisteneas = Πολις τε Νεας means towns and harbour or ships)

http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/d/dc/Ezerovo_ring.jpg

as also the word Βουνο or Σβουνιο (sVunio)which according greeks is the thracian word for mountain etc, the ending toponyms of -essa greek or -ova daco-romanian -ica bulg cant help to find thracian origin language,
But thracians were from peloponese and minor asia (Phrygians) to Hungary and even far of ucraine (taurica) even north of Persia (massagaete), Not only in balkans. Even in 20th century the isolated thracians of Greece call Fyrom Trivoli (acient Tribaldi) and the Varna Bulgarians drisianous (Odrysse),
so any claim that a nation is pure Thracian for me is unaccepted, cause thracian language and culture was wide spread all over balkans and east europe, but the strongest Thracian area is among Fyrom Serbia Greece Bulgaria and south Romania. cause the turkish area have changed to turkish and kept only its dances and music from ancient thracian

the area that Epigoni named and ruled Thracia is not the area of ancient Thracian expansion, and surely we don't know if that area, is the last speaking Thracian, or the proto Thracian states,
simply when herodotus says about Thracians the biggest nation after Indians (greater than persians) surely does not mean the duridanov's thracia, or simply Dacia, but should be a wider area and poppulus enough, probably east of dinaric alpes and from Greece to north of carpathia, areas mainly inhabited by I YDNA and low R1a,
The daci-moesi approach to ancient Thracian is not wrong, simply it quides us more to illyricum words than minor asian myssian, it is difficult a more focusing approach and neads life time works and comparisons of word roots,
But as a fact we know that Daci-thracian are mainly affected by latin, while south-Thracian by pellasgic-anatolian and makes problem more difficult

Besides in another post of mime I spoke about Mycenae and Myenae
4 Mycenae (Mycenae, Myssenae, Mossienae, Makenae) peloponese, myssia moeasia makedonia
and another in west should exist but I dont know where, so create the sign of Deplic 3ε of 5 mycenae and 9 nine Minyans (5 lands 9 waters)
 
Russian primary chronicle claims Slavs originally lived in Noricum and along Danube in Bulgaria and Hungaria of time of writing (1113) ....

note that according to euroatlas in 1100 AD Bulgaria is part of Byzantine empire....and in 1000AD Hungaria and Bulgaria are looking like this...

1000.jpg


thus, Thrace proper is not originally in Bulgaria while in 1000AD vast areas of today Serbia are both in Bulgaria and Hungary...

when someone in year 1113 speaks of lands along Danube where Bulgaria and Hungary are, he speaks not of Thrace but upper Moesia (today north Bulgaria and north Serbia) and Vojvodina (province of Serbia bordering Hungary)... those are areas of Triballi, Scordisci and Pannonians... According to Strabo Pannonians also live in Illyricum, that is in Dalmatia mixed with Venetic people that inhabited Adriatic coasts......

Jordanes says early Slavs are of Veneti race....


so proto-Slavs were probably not Thracians... but Triballi, Scordisci, Pannonains and Veneti

following map with genetic clines based on blood polymorphism shows clearly that Venetic people and people around Danube from Panonia to Ukraine are related... note that historic Slavs never settled in north Italy....relation of north Italy, Danube areas and Ukraine is probably reflection of people from whom genetically (not necessarily linguistically) proto-Slavs origin from, while Thracians are not in same layer....but I think that there was linguistic continuity as well for big part of these people...

pc1.jpg

http://dienekes.blogspot.com/2009/10/migrationism-strikes-back.html

again this is in corellation with Thraco-Cimmerians (who are found in Ukraine, around Danube and in north Italy....note also that according to map bellow there are no archeological findings of Thraco-Cimmerians in Thrace proper but only in Triballi area of uper Moesia)

Thraco-Cimmerian.png

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thraco-Cimmerians

note that Thraco-Cimmerians were much deeper in central Europe with strong center further up the Danube in what looks as Bohemia-Bavaria... while clines in people of today do not include that area in same layer with north Italy-Danubian-Ukraine people

back to tribal name Boii... according to Byzantine emperor, Serbs came to Balkan from land Boika, where they have also originally dwellt.... Boika neighbours Frankia, and white Croatia...
that is Bohemia - Bavaria where town Sorviodurum (Straubing of today - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Straubing) was and where place names Srby can be found
( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Srby_(Domažlice_District)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Srby_(Plzeň-South_District) )
...
we know that Russian primary chronicle says Slavic people lived around Danube but were pushed north due to Roman spread...chronicle includes Serbs and Croats in those Danubian Slavs...

...note that original location of Boii in Bohemia/Bavaria (both named after them) is north of Scordisci who are in Vojvodina, Slavonia and north Serbia... with area of influence of Scordisci (*see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scordisci ) going on south all the way to Šar mountains (named after them, and marking border between Macedonia and Albania - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Šar_Mountains), and on north all the way to Slovakia and Moravia thus to Boii.... tribe that entered Thrace from area of Scordisci is later known as Serdi, which is I think just Thrachanized version of Scordisci....

now Boii are north of Scordisci/Serdi
Vojvodina is north of Serbia proper...

coincidence?

btw. Cimbri are thought to origin from Cimmerians and their king has name Boiorix (which probably means "King of the Boii" )...Cimbri are often paired with Helvetii..
 
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it is imposible a 5 10 15% to change language of rest, except if the people already are familiar to a big % of that language.
what about latin america? what about turkey? what about hungary?
I can't answer about Hungary,

But in Latina maerica even today natives are spoken,
remember in Latin America invaders had Xtra power, and written language, Alphabet, (powder vs wood)
remember ow many years that extra power (powder) and preach and extra push to change and still people speak native, 500 years,

you can not compare 600 with 1600
at 600 if local people did have written language, that is why Balto-slavic of cyrill was accepted altough it should have some differences,
as example, if local people of Serbia wanted to prevail slavic invasion with small help from Con/polis it would be done, how many centuries of roman occupation in balkans?
at least 700 years as Rome, and at least 1200 as Rome and East Rome, (in Byzantium Roman was primary and accepted language) and Greeks and many others never accepted roman language, only Armani who were original Latino-celtic settlers speak even today dialects of Roman.

Turks occupy minor Asia 800 years and yet at 1923 40% of people still spoke Greek, which later with exchange of people is almost lost, (from battle of manzikurt 1187 to 1922)
turkey if an exchange of population was never done, still 40% would Speak Greek,
Remember the Genocide of Pontic greeks, at 1923, and Armenian genocide,
but did such genocides happened in balkans at slavic invasions? and if did the today 10% is it enough? to genocide 90% and if a genocide was done probably invaders would be less than 5%, so local people if they wanted they will join Byzantine forces, but probably they did not want, and the war had different % so the hostilities and the brutalities was mainly among Roman friends and Roman enemies at least at 1-2/3 of population
Besides turks as seljuk were only 80 000 people, as ottomans almost 150 000, if Byzantines did not change religion, language was forced to change, but accepting islam religion they change language also,
but even from 1100 to 1923 40% of minor asia was speaking Greek,
although words are imported, Balkans kept their languages as were before turkish occupation,
and try to expell the turkish linguistic loans, or forced imported words.

IN BULGARIA ARE NOT MENTIONED MASSIVE SLAVIC INVASIONS, BUT YET IS CONSIDERED SLAVIC NATION,
WHO CHANGE LANGUAGE IF NO INVASION WAS DONE, AND WHY BALKARS DID TURN LANGUAGE TO HUNIC?
(balkars are considered hunic, exept if they were already slavic speakers, funny)

how is it possible outside of Con/polis a fully Greco-roman speaking Capital a small 5-10% change language?
or con/polis was native Americans with wooden weapons??? (funny)
no simply south slavic language was familiar and known, and at christianity times enter Baltic branch of language from Cyrillic translation.

in Israel were alphabet exist, no Greeks, no Roman, no persians, no Arabs, no Egyptians, no Babbylonians manage to dissapear the language, for more than 2500 years of occupation.
 
so proto-Slavs were probably not Thracians... but Triballi, Scordisci, Pannonains and Veneti

Byzantines name Makedonia the area of Stara zagora also, is it Makedonia?
Romans named Illyricum areas of Romania, is it Illyria?

according written sources tribaldi and pannoni were thracians,

to understand, it is mistaken to connect Thracian with the area that Epigoni named Thracia, Skopje was Thracia at Alexanders time, is it today?
Nis was Thracia at That time, is it today,
Thracia is not the area that Duridanov clames, or Epigoni named,
the know Thracian by Herodotus and Strabo are these,
The unknown thracian is from Peloponese and Phrygia to Slovakia and Ucraine,

in Gennesis Iayan people (Yunan) dwell among Thracians, not south,
so probably Thracian language and Thracian was also in minor asia,
Thissagaete lived on Steppes
Don't connect Thracians with Bulgaria, it is mistaken,
Bulgaria is only the Odrysse Thracians, and perhaps some Paeonians, and only them,
it is not the center or the area of proto thracian,
In fact sesklo/dimini proves the existance of Thracians in Greece before pelasgic invasions,
Triballi Pannoni are another south Thracian tribes,
Daci Gaete are the north Thracians,
Celts probably lived west of Dinaric alpes, and north of carnians (marimbor areas)
How you explain the Ossariates = lakes,
and Greek Mt Ossa = water falls, and Ossetia,
maybe you even claim that baltoslavic went to thessaly before mycenae and gave name to mountain? hmm
no simply Thracian tribes ocuppy areas from greece bulgaria fyrom serbia, bosna, romania, moldova, ucraine, hungary until chech and slovak, and bithynia, myssian, phrygian moschi (moeschi) cimmerians in minor asia.
plz do not connect Thracians with Bulgaria, it is mistaken,
Thracian is the european branch of hettits, and not the Bulgarian,
Thracian expansion fits very well with I2
Now about Veneti, I don't know, I have no reason to argue,

simply Bulgaria and Dacia kept thracian more than others, but that doesn't mean that they are the original, or the only one,

and to return to the point of the thread,
I still believe that R1a is slavic ydna, but I still believe that slavic language of balto-slavic is the south slavic language,
 
Iapetoc, it is hard to say about Thracians...
it makes sense, but I would like to see more indications, as linguistic links do not hold...
 
I find it very illogical that people quote jordanes when stating about the adriatic veneti people.
Jordanes lived around 600AD of gothic parentage , born in illyircum. Is it not better to get accurate facts from Polybius who was born around 150BC and saw with his own eyes the latinization of the Venetic people ( adriatic veneti) . Polybius said that they where celtic and illyric.

If people say that Polybius is much too ancient, then why not use the current Historian John Wilkes who is renowned for his knowledge of the illyrian, venetic and epirote peoples ( and others)

It seems very very strange, especially since I read Italian and venetian archives on the issue
 
Turks occupy minor Asia 800 years and yet at 1923 40% of people still spoke Greek, which later with exchange of people is almost lost, (from battle of manzikurt 1187 to 1922)
turkey if an exchange of population was never done, still 40% would Speak Greek,
Remember the Genocide of Pontic greeks, at 1923, and Armenian genocide,
but did such genocides happened in balkans at slavic invasions? and if did the today 10% is it enough? to genocide 90% and if a genocide was done probably invaders would be less than 5%, so local people if they wanted they will join Byzantine forces, but probably they did not want, and the war had different % so the hostilities and the brutalities was mainly among Roman friends and Roman enemies at least at 1-2/3 of population
Besides turks as seljuk were only 80 000 people, as ottomans almost 150 000, if Byzantines did not change religion, language was forced to change, but accepting islam religion they change language also,
but even from 1100 to 1923 40% of minor asia was speaking Greek,
although words are imported, Balkans kept their languages as were before turkish occupation,
and try to expell the turkish linguistic loans, or forced imported words.

so...it's posible. You answered: by religion. Or by sword. In most cases by both.
 
no in fact the opposite,

so...it's posible. You answered: by religion. Or by sword. In most cases by both.


Alphabet is stronger than sword,
and in case of slavic how many years past until Cyrill from invasion 1 century? 2 century?
yet the Alphabet and the written bible in a familiar language was stronger than any war

Iapetoc, it is hard to say about Thracians...
it makes sense, but I would like to see more indications, as linguistic links do not hold...

I 'm repeating my shelf,
I am conviced that Slavic Ydna is R1a,
I am not conviced that slavic language enter from Baltic to balkans, and was not language of R1a,

I believe that I Ydna existed before J and E in balkans and spoke Thracian east of Dinaric Alps,
and the more northern Dialects in coexistance with others create Valto-slavic
 
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I think that proto-Slavic folks were actually an admixture of Northeast European haplogroup hg. N1c1 and Central European hg. R1a and hg. I2 folks.
 
If it turns that Ra1 and I2a Dinaric were both slavic from West Ukraine and Belarus area, but they lived in separate tribes with strong I2a or Ra1 influence, it will mean that there was a strongest political/national entity that gave both groups same language and culture. And it had to be a very long influence of about 1,000 years. Sarmatia might be a good candidate for this purpose, so how knows, maybe slavic was the language of Sarmatians?
 
Sarmatians are considered to have been iranic people....
as north iranic languages were likely very close to proto-Slavic in times when Sarmatians enter Europe, they did easily blend with proto-Slavic people....

note that Greek mythology derives Sarmatians from Scythians, and those were likely among proto-Slavic people...

regarding proto-Slavs, see also linguistic arguments that connect proto-Slavs with Scythians, Veneti, Thracians, Pannonians and Pelasgians...

http://www.eupedia.com/forum/showthread.php?27558-origin-of-tribal-names
 
"I can reply only to Q1 : All Slavic languages in the Middle Ages were very close and mutually understandable. The standard was established from the old Bulgarian - linguists call this language the Slavonic. "

This is a typical nonsense, invented by the "Holy Church" called Church Slavic language
. Church (Slavic) was not the 1. Slavic language (it never existed in fact as a language). It was an artificial "approximation". And Christianity was not the 1. culture (indeed, religion is a cultural element) of Slavs.

"as an example word Bog is same to all slavic,"

The word "Bog" or "Bhaga" - also in several other languages (like Luwian, Sanskrit,...) means "to follow...(laws)". Old Slavs were extremelly loyal to their tradition of Godi (another version of Slavic pre-Christian Bog; God) which followed as days of Gods on the pre Christian Slavic Calendar. 1 cycle per year was called God which also meant "Year" (the term Year or Yar (Jar) means "Young"; "cyclic" (Garden; Yard-en; Gard, Grad) or Leto. Every God has been violently replaced with "saints". 3rd form of Bog was Deva, which was also part of the Calendar. Term 9 or Devetor Deviat includes something which is "godly" and has its own circle...(in calendar). 1 Slavic week called Nedela ("not part of it; "no separation; no "teil", no "work"(people did not work in last day in the week ) or Teden/Tiaden ("dev-den" - "9th day") - "week". 1 Month(Mesiats; "moon") have had 9x3 Teden(s) which followed the Vedic tradition of Nakshatras (Synodic lunar months) of Gods, who were represented as "starry constellations" in: JAV(this is poJAV; "to appear"; visible, born...), PRAV(righteous, fair; realm of gods) and NAV (प्रणव { ॐ }; "pra Nava"(pre Nav); "Om" ; the Astral, primordial, Shadowy world (realm of ghosts, Hell; Underworld). Jav, Prav and Nav were separated between 9th world of Gods around the "mount (and crystal castle) of the World (Mount Meru) and Lower world, which have had 7 lower words (the worlds were unfortunatelly forgotten -read: destroyed by the "holy Church") which were equal to the world of snakes (Patala (Podol in Slovene) or Nagaloka in Sanskrit. In Slovenia survived cult of "golden haired" god Kresnik (avatar of Perun) who was born after nine (Nava) years and lives in the 9th world and is flying on the golden chair. His brother is Trot(also the term for a male-bee; and "lazy man" ) and his 4 eyed dog is his companion. His enemy is "Queen of Snakes" or Vedomec (derives from the term "Veda" (knowledge) or Viešč (Vešč; "skilled"; from this term derives "Witch-er", mage). His another enemy was Veles or Velko, Vouvel, Volvelu, Balon, Babilon(this is "Babylon"; Вави-ло́н (russian, ukrainian readers will understand the point about the " ло́на - Luna (womb) - Вави (ВОВНА)
,something which is "rounded(ball)from outside" and "empty" inside like a womb"; Moon... This is the "origin" of the Phoenician (transmuted "Venitian"; "Venetic") Lunar and SatUrn-ian cult of BA'AL or Va'al (the 'letter' V in"YHWH" or YHVVH"(that's why it became an "unknown & "forbidden" name of a "god" (because there is no "mono god" behind this name, but a pantheon...http://www.haaretz.com/news/nationa...eaves-israeli-archaeologists-baffled-1.400113) was "representing" the Slavic-Phoenician (Venetic) god Veles or Vol (Taurus) Bull..., before the cult was demonized and perverted into something like this:
http://image.shutterstock.com/displ...-phoenician-god-carrying-a-child-76243105.jpg

note that we "inharited" the Babylonian "7-days week" after Babylonians via the Byzantium (Christian cult)) and "Christian "history" (old Slavic history was totally rewritten and completelly deleted). So, gods control the world from the 9th land (this is Ygdrasil), from the world of Osi (Axis-es(Axes) in the Grad Osi / Gard Osi ("As Gard")... "gods".
 
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The problem with slavs is that they don't even know their own ancient history.

one slav here says Serbians are the true slavs and migrated north and then east

another states , ukraines are the only slavs

while the slavs I know ( 2) both agree that west-slavic are the purest slavs, thenfollow east-slavic and last is south-slavic people ...............what is the truth here?
 

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