iapetoc
Junior Member
about Italy,
shouldn't Κalabria have raised R1a
also Greece should have a spot bigger than 20 in central Greece?
shouldn't Κalabria have raised R1a
also Greece should have a spot bigger than 20 in central Greece?
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about Italy,
shouldn't Κalabria have raised R1a
also Greece should have a spot bigger than 20 in central Greece?
Two other possibilities remain which I think are even less likely: that R1b peoples were the first Indo-Europeans, and that neither R1a nor R1b were significant parts of the initial Indo-European admixture.
Why would this be less likely?
Does anyone know where in Europe we have R1a1-M17 big Concentrations? also an analogy of M17/other R1a
Nice map. Good job on it!
I am not sure if this is the right area I should be posting this comment, But I was hoping somebody could help me out. I am trying to figure out the YDNA makeup of the Frankish tribes. I am curious because I believe I have been able to trace my ancestry back to the Cologne merchants that flooded into London following the Norman Invasion. Cologne, falling roughly into what was once Frankish territory, is why I am interested in the YDNA of the Franks. My R1a subtype (according to R1a . org) matches the "Central European" R1a type, while I believe that the "North Western" type is most commonly associated with the Germanic people. So my question is if the Franks carried R1a, and if they did, what modern day R1a type would they most likley be associated with.
And If my ancestor was a "Germanized Slav"as someone has suggested, when would he have entered Germany (what major Slavic Migration reached as far west as Cologne, before the year 1100AD?)
I am probably missing out on some major concepts behind the migrations of R1a in Europe, but that is why I am asking the community for help
Thanks for your time reading this!
TCR1AG
According to polish historians this was the situation of west Slavs by 800-950AD, and the farthest extend to the west.
http://www.piastowie.kei.pl/piast/mapy/1.htm
View attachment 5427
Slavs have never come as far west as Cologne. The westernmost place Slavs have ever got is about 10 to 11° longitude. But around 1000AD, shortly before the Norman conquest, everything east of that line was "savage frontierland" so to say. Christianization and germanization of Slavs have just got started. It seems a bit unlikely to me -but not impossible- that a guy from today's East Germany, Poland or Czech Republic moved to Cologne as a merchant at that time and then he or his descendands to England.
Generally I'm always very sceptical about deep linage research as far as 1000 years. First of all, until like three hundred years ago it wasn't uncommon if someone took the family name of a family he was employed at, but not related with. And secondly, there have always been naughty women...
naughty women , but nice
could be frankish or slavic associated with the hansetic league. mecklenburg ( lubeck) was slavic and they traded with "frankish" flanders
The Hanseatic League wasn't established before the 12th century, and even then it grew slowly at first. Moreover 'ThatconfusedR1aguy' stated that his R1a was more of a central European subclade. Individual migrations from Slavic central Europe to the Rhine must have been very rare at that time (Early Middle Ages). That means I don't want to say it's impossible, but very unlikely.
I may have missed it in this thread, but what is the source for the ~5% R1a in Auvergne? I am curious what study or studies came up with that figure, what the sample sizes were, etc.
Thanks!
read from post #4 of this thread, it caould be from the east germanic burgundians
R1a might be there since earlier times as the Burgundians never went to Auvergne
it been discussed before, a distance of less than 20K is insignificant in the scheme of immigration
The problem is that R1a is higher in Auvergne than in Rhône-Alpes and Provence, two regions where the Burgundians settled
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