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I do not favour your slavic argument due to the fact , that modern areas of Dalmatia, croatia, slovenia, slavonia in the ancient times would have been what???........... was it an old I2* from the east germans and unassociatied with the slavs, was it r1a1a , maybe a g2a in the dinaric alps.
Originally Posted by sparkey
As i stated before , the E is too far south to have been a central and northern "illyrian" HG.
It ok to say one thing, but if logically you leave a void on what is historically known, then the new logic is askew
có che un pòpoło no 'l defende pi ła só łéngua el xe prónto par èser s'ciavo
when a people no longer dares to defend its language it is ripe for slavery.