edao
Elite member
I have a question about the relationship between Y-DNA and Autosomal admixture.
1.If we take Scotland and Norway, would I be right to say that looking at the Autosomal (Northwest Euro)
it would indicate that there has been extensive interbreeding between the Scandinavians and the Scots?
My understanding Y-DNA is that it is passed down from father to son unchanged, so if that is the case then if I'm Scottish and I hold R1b and breed with a Norwegian female and we have a son he would then hold R1b. And vice versa if a Norwegian man(I1) bred with a Scottish woman their son would then hold I1. Is this correct?
2. If the above is true why is the distribution of Y-DNA between Scandinavia and Scotland not more consistent? For example Scotland is 72.5% R1b where as Norway is only 28%.
If its some kind of Viking raiding party spreading genes, I1 is 34% in Norway but only 9% in Scotland, if the two populations are so closely related in autosomal why isn't this showing up in Y-DNA?
Is it to do with mtDNA, or am I reading the information all wrong?
1.If we take Scotland and Norway, would I be right to say that looking at the Autosomal (Northwest Euro)
it would indicate that there has been extensive interbreeding between the Scandinavians and the Scots?
My understanding Y-DNA is that it is passed down from father to son unchanged, so if that is the case then if I'm Scottish and I hold R1b and breed with a Norwegian female and we have a son he would then hold R1b. And vice versa if a Norwegian man(I1) bred with a Scottish woman their son would then hold I1. Is this correct?
2. If the above is true why is the distribution of Y-DNA between Scandinavia and Scotland not more consistent? For example Scotland is 72.5% R1b where as Norway is only 28%.
If its some kind of Viking raiding party spreading genes, I1 is 34% in Norway but only 9% in Scotland, if the two populations are so closely related in autosomal why isn't this showing up in Y-DNA?
Is it to do with mtDNA, or am I reading the information all wrong?