The Albanian language

[Yetos]

I think it will be you now to understand what is the real meaning of the science. Just keep reading.




I can't agree more with you. The Greek language wasn't the vernacular one of the so called Hellenes on the first place.




I am not sure about that...actually Albanian language has been the vernacular language of the Albanian race all along. There is nothing else to identify better with Albanians but their language.





I don't know you, but I am sure that the so called "Classical Greek"(which I beleive is at least 1000 years younger from what is a dominant trend in opinion about its age) bears many Albanian words in an earlier status. And one of them is excactly the word θύρη which was pronounced: tʰyrë or t-hyrë, where y is pronounced like in German or French.

Then let's look at the definition of the door:



Since ancient times the general idea for the door has been like an entrance, or a door is used to enter inside the .......
Now let's look what Albanian language uses for that:



and obviously like in English that 'entrance' comes from the verb 'to enter' in Albanian it does to:

të hyj-----> hyrje
Evidently the "Greek" word tʰyrë(t-hyrë) is very similar graphicaly to the Albanian 'hyrje' or its participle: (të) hyrë:



which semantically describes what a door serves for:



TO ENTER


(për) të hyrë~ t'hyrë~tʰyrë(θύρη)

hahaha

funny isn't it
you say hyre but you not say ερχου (order of ερχω-μαι)

I will just repeat what Erasmus said, but sorry I can't agree with family heart above science.

I wonder how much above we put nationalism against science sometimes.

[Taranis]

Zeus, do I get this right and you say that:


- Without any evidence, you claim that Albanian is the original, unchanged and uncorruptable Indo-European language.

I would like to discuss a little bit about Albanian language, and its relationship to the so called PIE, which in my opinion is not only a hypothetical language, but also wrongly reconstructed, since not all Europian languages were taken into consideration during this reconstruction, and especially language like Albanian which is one of the few that has followed a clear natural phonetical and lexical development and has not undergone "language purifications" or scholastic standartizations, like the most of other now spoken European ones, until at least lately.

- You claim that Greek and Latin are "invented" languages and that Latin is a descendant of the former (which can be easily demonstrated to be non-workable):

Latin(and its early Eastern form, the so called "Greek") language is a language of scholasticism, which was built on the first place for liturgical and writing purposes, and 'borrowed' lexicon from natural languages in abundance, recycling back to the original languages terminology of development, liturgical, scientific and technological character, but NOT basic words, and especially not totally replacing the native words of the everyday life. The word "qen" in Albanian, is one of them, and was in existencelong before the creation of two forms of the sacred language: Eastern Roman(Greek) and Wester Roman(Latin). Apperantly it is the other way around, an early form of a similar language like Albanian, furnished the "Lingua Franca" with natural words on the first place, and to me the word 'qen' is one of them.

- You claim that the comparative method is essentially nonsense (doubtful considering how well it works and how universally it's applicable) and instead postulate that words in all other Indo-European languages can be "magically" dismantled via Albanian. You also consider your own method "more convincing":

I can not agree more with you, but differently from you I use the comparative method, in a very convincing and reliable way than these weird theories with strange sound shifts. This is the real path

- Now you apparently imply that the ancient Greeks actually spoke Albanian as a vernacular language (something that is both untestable, and is in fact based on the ad-hoc premise that all written evidence must be ignored):

The Greek language wasn't the vernacular one of the so called Hellenes on the first place.

I don't know you, but I am sure that the so called "Classical Greek"(which I beleive is at least 1000 years younger from what is a dominant trend in opinion about its age) bears many Albanian words in an earlier status. And one of them is excactly the word θύρη which was pronounced: tʰyrë or t-hyrë, where y is pronounced like in German or French.

To me, it appears that all your "hypotheses" revolve around forgone conclusions as well as your your own personal declarations, namely that Albanian must be the center and source of absolutely everything. It is in obvious violation of Occam's Razor, and it is pseudoscience of the worst kind. No offense, but from my perspective, you might as well be trying to sell us Creationism, Flat Earth, Lysenkoism or Planet Nibiru.

[Zeus10]

Zeus, do I get this right and you say that:


- Without any evidence, you claim that Albanian is the original, unchanged and uncorruptable Indo-European language.

I have never claimed that, what I claimed is that Albanian has a long vernacular history, and bears better than any other European language the features of a vernacular primordial mother language.

- You claim that Greek and Latin are "invented" languages and that Latin is a descendant of the former (which can be easily demonstrated to be non-workable):

They are the languages of the same theocrats, used for liturgical, writing and administrative purposes on the first place. They are scholastized written languages developed and standartized ex-cathedra but using the lexicon from the local vernacular dialects and such they are taken/confused for the language of the people.

- You claim that the comparative method is essentially nonsense (doubtful considering how well it works and how universally it's applicable) and instead postulate that words in all other Indo-European languages can be "magically" dismantled via Albanian. You also consider your own method "more convincing":

Comparative method for example:

h1eg’hs<<-----jashtë--(out)
h2eh1treh4<<-----vatër----(hearth)

brings you nowhere. It doesn't tell you nothing about the ethymology of the word, and instead of suggesting simpler structure for the mother primitive roots, it suggest a very complex ones, like in this ex:

kagh<-----ke----(have)
or
h3ok’w<----sy


when our expectation are that for word of such a simple structure c-v type to have originated from a simpler or equal one.

Continues...

[Zeus10]

- Now you apparently imply that the ancient Greeks actually spoke Albanian as a vernacular language (something that is both untestable, and is in fact based on the ad-hoc premise that all written evidence must be ignored):

Before answering the question I would like you to define what do you understand with "Ancient Greeks", and after that I would like to know what do you define as 'vernacular Ancient Greek', and if you have proofs for that what makes it different from the 'New Testament' language.

To me, it appears that all your "hypotheses" revolve around forgoneconclusions as well as your your own personal declarations, namely that Albanian must be the center and source of absolutely everything. It is in obvious violation of Occam's Razor, and it is pseudoscience of the worst kind. No offense, but from my perspective, you might as well be trying to sell us Creationism, Flat Earth, Lysenkoism or Planet Nibiru.

Nothing to answer there. This is your own assumption that I look as a diversion, although I gave you no reason for that.

[Zeus10]

Now let's go back to square one, which language from the following should be considered Satem/Centum?:

English------------Albanian

song--------------këngë(kangë-geg)
city---------------qytet

[Yetos]

I have never claimed that, what I claimed is that Albanian has a long vernacular history, and bears better than any other European language the features of a vernacular primordial mother language.





They are the languages of the same theocrats, used for liturgical, writing and administrative purposes on the first place. They are scholastized written languages developed and standartized ex-cathedra but using the lexicon from the local vernacular dialects and such they are taken/confused for the language of the people.




Comparative method for example:

h1eg’hs<<-----jashtë--(out)
h2eh1treh4<<-----vatër----(hearth)

brings you nowhere. It doesn't tell you nothing about the ethymology of the word, and instead of suggesting simpler structure for the mother primitive roots, it suggest a very complex ones, like in this ex:

kagh<-----ke----(have)
or
h3ok’w<----sy


when our expectation are that for word of such a simple structure c-v type to have originated from a simpler or equal one.

Continues...

again funny,
Just tell the people who read here

WHO IS MOST POSSIBLE TO BE CONFUSED AND QUIDED AWAY FROM PROTO SOUNDS?

The one who has wrtten speech?
or the one who has not?

comparing Greek and Latin who change to Modern Greek and Italian by people who also had schools and written speech so not to be confused or driven away from original sounds

and you are telling us that modern Albanian are PIE and did not change in History with less than 2/3 of written speech cause they had family Hearth?

Not even Henry Kissinger would dream of a theory like that

May I remind you that linguists found a Rumeyika language in the mountains of Pontus that is the most near to Homer's language of all modern IE languages and even has elements which connects it to Aryan
search Sitaridou work, soon going to be published,

for you info watch the video

it is only spoken by 5000 people mainly old who never wend to school, due to change of population and Turkish education
at least Linguistacally it is considered the most ancient IE language that is spoken today,




No Need more, I am not forced to defend Greek language in a post about Albanian language which is precious and must be searched, but surely not with your methods


for your information searchers of Greek language search in kallasha Italy Cyprus Pontic mountains Ucraine Georgia cause they kept sounds and forms that are not spoken today in Greece mainly due to Romanisation Thracianization and Slavic influence of Greek language in today Greece.
is not Family Hearth?

yet all spotted population kept parts and not the whole
but by comparing parts we find the whole,

[Taranis]

I have never claimed that, what I claimed is that Albanian has a long vernacular history, and bears better than any other European language the features of a vernacular primordial mother language.

What evidence do you have for that? I'm still under the impression that this is your forgone conclusion.

They are the languages of the same theocrats, used for liturgical, writing and administrative purposes on the first place. They are scholastized written languages developed and standartized ex-cathedra but using the lexicon from the local vernacular dialects and such they are taken/confused for the language of the people.

You keep using the word "theocrats". Why do you ignore that the Greek and Latin alphabets were in used for many centuries before the emergence of Christianity? Why do you ignore that neither the Roman Republic, nor the Hellenistic successor states to Alexander's empire, nor the city states of the archaic period were "theocracies". Likewise, what evidence do you have that the languages are "scholasticized" or "developed ex-cathedra" as you claim?

Comparative method for example:

h1eg’hs<<-----jashtë--(out)
h2eh1treh4<<-----vatër----(hearth)

brings you nowhere. It doesn't tell you nothing about the ethymology of the word, and instead of suggesting simpler structure for the mother primitive roots, it suggest a very complex ones, like in this ex:

kagh<-----ke----(have)
or
h3ok’w<----sy

How does the modern meaning in Albanian tell you more about it? See, you're making a foregone conclusion again if you assume that modern Albanian is somehow more representative and more "valuable" in terms of giving us more information about the original condition than other languages.

It's very clear that meanings of words change, and sometimes it's hard to discern the original meaning of the word, but to me it makes more sense to look at various languages across the board and try to discern what the various reflexes have in common rather than arbitrarily pick one modern language and attempt to "dismantle" words in other languages that are clearly no compound words. And I think it should give you a pause to realize that your method is utterly non-applicable for non-Indo-European languages (it really works only on Indo-European languages, and it works only on the premise that Albanian represents the original condition).

when our expectation are that for word of such a simple structure c-v type to have originated from a simpler or equal one.

Continues...

See, this is where you make a foregone conclusion: why do you have the premise that the ancestral language must have been more simple? Why is it our expectation that the ancestral language must have had a more simple structure? I can offhand think of four living languages (all in the Caucasus) that have a phonology that is similarly complex or greater than standard reconstructed Proto-Indo-European, including Abkhaz, Chechen, Georgian and most notably Ubykh. If you want other parts of the world, I'd suggest Burushaski, or perhaps the Salish languages. Just because Albanian is relatively simple compared to other Indo-European languages doesn't automatically mean it's more representative of the original condition. In fact, there's a lot of reasons to assume that it isn't:

- Latvian and Lithuanian have both a considerably more complex grammar than Albanian (bear in mind that Albanian lacks an instrumental and locative case) and they are both languages that are attested only relatively late. In fact, both have the earliest literature later than Albanian.

- Avestan and Sanskrit, the literature languages of ancient Persia and India have both a similar grammar (both have eight grammatical cases: nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, instrumental, ablative, vocative, locative) to the Baltic languages mentioned above.

- Likewise, for example, Russian has six cases (it's lacking the vocative and ablative).

- I might also mention Celtiberian and Gaulish, which (although rather fragmentarily attested) are also two ancient languages with a grammar more complex than Albanian: Gaulish had seven cases (lacking an ablative), Celtiberian had at least six (it may have lacked an instrumental and a vocative).

- In contrast, English is evidently a very simplified languages, both compared against other Germanic languages (German has four cases - nominative, dative, accusative, genitive while English has effectively made completely away with cases except what you might consider a vestigial genitive) and against other Indo-European languages (for comparison, German lacks ablative, instrumental, vocative and locative). We also have the attestation of the Anglo-Saxon language which shows us that English at a point had a considerably more complex morphology than today.

So, no matter how we turn it, we have both ancient and modern languages that are clearly more complex morphology than Albanian. By the authority of what evidence do you argue then that Albanian is more representative of the original condition?

[Taranis]

Before answering the question I would like you to define what do you understand with "Ancient Greeks", and after that I would like to know what do you define as 'vernacular Ancient Greek', and if you have proofs for that what makes it different from the 'New Testament' language.

I'll ask you a better question that will get straight to the point: do you believe in historical revisionism?

Nothing to answer there. This is your own assumption that I look as a diversion, although I gave you no reason for that.

Well, you should answer it. You're not the first Albanophile (I think that is a neutral word to use in this context) to come here and try to tell us that Linguistics for the past 150+ years "got it all wrong" about the Indo-European languages and that Albanian is the primordial Indo-European language, and words in all other Indo-European languages can be somehow magically dismantled using Albanian. All this appears for me to be based on this unwarranted presupposition that Albanian must somehow be special. What I do not understand is the motivation for all this. Why all this effort?

[Taranis]

again funny,
Just tell the people who read here

WHO IS MOST POSSIBLE TO BE CONFUSED AND QUIDED AWAY FROM PROTO SOUNDS?

The one who has wrtten speech?
or the one who has not?

comparing Greek and Latin who change to Modern Greek and Italian by people who also had schools and written speech so not to be confused or driven away from original sounds

and you are telling us that modern Albanian are PIE and did not change in History with less than 2/3 of written speech cause they had family Hearth?

Not even Henry Kissinger would dream of a theory like that

Yetos, I must ask you to stop with this baiting, it's entirely uncalled for.

[Zeus10]

As a starter, could i get like a single text of Gheg Albanian, pre-WWII (or after) text where qiell is written as çiel? I'd like to see that...

Here it is, from Pietro Bogdano 1685

E kü krue i giaλè, e ketè tè kjanè tè amèsciuescim pèr tè gni mendè ansctè Hüji krijues', i t' pamet', e t' pa pamet, i naltè pèr mbij giξξè Cuppètè chieλèt, i pusctuescim, i mèscèrierscim, i mirè, i derejtè, i maξ pa massè, anè, e skagn. Jetet' sè jetèsè, e per jetètè jetèsè ti je Hüj. . Unè jam, aj chi jam; e aj chi ansctè, dèrgoj mue

Transcription

E ky krue i gjalle e kete të q'jane te amëshueshim per te nji mende anshte Hyji krijues i t'pamet, e t'pa pamet, i nalte per mbij gjithe kupet e çiellët, i pushtueshim, i mëshirueshim, i mire, i drejte, i madh pa masë, anë e skanj..................

[Zeus10]

And here it is in a random facebook conversation nowdays:

[Zeus10]

See, this is where you make a foregone conclusion: why do you have the premise that the ancestral language must have been more simple? Why is it our expectation that the ancestral language must have had a more simple structure? I can offhand think of four living languages (all in the Caucasus) that have a phonology that is similarly complex or greater than standard reconstructed Proto-Indo-European, including Abkhaz, Chechen, Georgian and most notably Ubykh. If you want other parts of the world, I'd suggest Burushaski, or perhaps the Salish languages. Just because Albanian is relatively simple compared to other Indo-European languages doesn't automatically mean it's more representative of the original condition. In fact, there's a lot of reasons to assume that it isn't:

- Latvian and Lithuanian have both a considerably more complex grammar than Albanian and they are both languages that are attested only relatively late. In fact, both have the earliest literature later than Albanian.

Well, let me ask you a question: How much do you know about Albanian grammar to be in the position to estimate the complexity of it compared to the other languages ones? And by the way, what does grammar have to do to the primordial word phonetical structure of the language? Grammar can govern over clauses and phrases but never over the ideophones and onomatopoeias which are GIVEN naturally and they are in my opinion the primordial structure cells of the languages.

(bear in mind that Albanian lacks an instrumental and locative case)

And then what? Isn't Latin and Greek also which merged these two cases in their respectivaly ablative and dative ones? And beside that, in Albanian although is so frequently used the vocative, our linguists never bothered themselves to add this in the grammar cases. In total Albanian have 6 noun cases which makes it one of richest among other languages.

[Yetos]

And here it is in a random facebook conversation nowdays:

Very intereasting and Scientific




Sory but a bucket of nationalistic ideas that starts from times of H Kissinger is not science.
believe what ever, you are not convincing me.

especially in the case of Greek language, may I remind you that was not a lingua Franca in Balkans
as in other places,

and if in Pontic mountains Greek call the door Θυρα surely is not after Albanian Dera,
and Aphrodite is after αφρος +διος = god of Foam
and not by apher dita
most of Greek gods share the -di- which is after Dios and not after Dita

so when you have something to say about Latin and Greek better be something good and not 'phantasies'

when freedom came to Greece guys like you make ,ethods and theories about the Greek origin of everything even the IE language,
the mania was big and people buy cheap fiction about the superb
considering that times I believe the phenomena strikes Albania about same time that stroke Greece after Liberty.
these people sometime got honored, but today everybody is laughing,

[Endri]

You are misleading people here, and I don't know why. You as a native Albanian speaker MUST know that
ynë and jonë
are synonyms, the first one is used when the noun is in masch. ex.--biri ynë; and the second one is used for femin. ex: toka jonë.
If you dont know this just open a dictionary online:

http://argjiro.net/fjalor/index.php

If you look like 2-3 post more you'll see that I already apologized for my mistake...

This is your second time that you are accusing me for trying to confuse other people. If you are a kid and are looking for some attention you better step aside, if you really think that :




then you better learn your own language, because the primarily meaning for "çel" is 'to open' or hap(alb)[another synonym), and it has been like this at least since the year 1635.

Ok, so you're saying that all those "words" i said aren't more or less synonyms to the word "to open"???

And of course, lets use the age card here. You're a kid and since you're a kid your opinion doesn't matter cause you're dumb, idiot, immature, ignorant ect. Seriously i can 5 or 555, to you shouldn't matter. If you don't agree to MY opinion you can say so. Unlike you, I'm not close minded and if I'm wrong I'm not ashamed or anything like that to admit my mistake.

Here it is, from Pietro Bogdano 1685



Transcription

E ky krue i gjalle e kete të q'jane te amëshueshim per te nji mende anshte Hyji krijues i t'pamet, e t'pa pamet, i nalte per mbij gjithe kupet e çiellët, i pushtueshim, i mëshirueshim, i mire, i drejte, i madh pa masë, anë e skanj..................

As far as i can see and know about Pjeter Bogdani, this text written using Italian orthography and in Italian orthography the group "ch+i" means "ki" not "çi".

And here it is in a random facebook conversation nowdays:

Best example. A FB conversation, cause we all know how much people write correctly...especially this folks who seem to not be able to distinguish /q/ from /ç/. Not that i care but I hope they don't know smo called "çimi" cause that would be just terrible...

[Zeus10]

As far as i can see and know about Pjeter Bogdani, this text written using Italian orthography and in Italian orthography the group "ch+i" means "ki" not "çi". ...

Wrong again, from the same text:

chiesa(it)=kisha

Best example. A FB conversation, cause we all know how much people write correctly...especially this folks who seem to not be able to distinguish /q/ from /ç/. Not that i care but I hope they don't know smo called "çimi" cause that would be just terrible

That's the whole point, if they had used the standard language ortography we wouldn't have known their dialectical sound which is like this:


Gegs(especially Albanians from Kosova) use q whereas Tosks use ç in their pronounciation, and vice-verca.

[Zeus10]

See, this is where you make a foregone conclusion: why do you have the premise that the ancestral language must have been more simple? Why is it our expectation that the ancestral language must have had a more simple structure?

Because everything in nature works like this, from the simplest to most complex. Let me take you by hand explaining this process (through two very significant examples), which in my opinion determined the evolution of the natural languages.

1. Ideophone
2 Onomatopoeia

1. Albanian contrary to the other European languages, is full of terms of c-v and c-v-c stucture, which in my opinion are the earliest word forms of the natural spoken languages, especially on verbs which are also the back bones of the other parts of the speech. How do they appear?
A primitive c-v structure is compounded by an 'ideo-sound' consonant + a 'fluid' vowel.

For example the consonant L evokes a sensation of movement, or displacement. Combined with a very 'unostacled' vowel like ë, it creates a primitive word 'lë'-(leave), which generated hundreds of other words with a similar semantics, not only in Albanian but in every European language. The closest one in that perspective is the the word of the c-v-c structure: (me) lësh-u(re[leas]e), by adding just another consonant which serves to slightly deviate the meaning. Then the word was borrowed from the languages of the Latin origin (ex. lëshu-->lascia(it)) and from them 'traveled' to neo-Latin ones, and from them to English.
Depending on which vowel follows the consonant we will have a bone(consonant)-flash(vowel) structure, bearing a new meaning very close to the orginal one. Ex.



lë----leave
la----left
ly-----colorare(paint)
lu-aj----play
lu-aj----cillo(move)

The process is long and complex, but for now is good enough to create an idea.

continues (2)

[Zeus10]

2. Onomatopeia
As you might know onomatopeia is a word:

... that imitates or suggests the source of the sound that it describes

Try to scratch your skin, the immediate sound result will be krrrrr and Albanian language imitates it by a very 'loyal' word (me) kru which is kru-aj(standart Albanian).



The next closest sound in nature which results in a c(a)rving is grrrrr, which again gives an immediate Albanian immitative word: (me) grry or gërry-ej (carv-ing), a process usually resulting with a deeper scratch. The verb itself derives a noun:

gërry-ej---> gropë(hole)

the same Albanian(the same to mother language) verb has given at least one meaning in English:
'grave'.

When a reinforcing consonant sh is added in front of the onomatopeic word 'kru' in Albanian , a new word is being rendered(bearing an early perceveiment) (me) 'shkru' (write) which was borowed from the Latins to give 'scrive' and then in English 'script':



being the earliest writing the humanity has performed.

[Yetos]

Because everything in nature works like this, from the simpler to more complex. Let me take you by hand explaining this process to you through two very significant examples, which in my opinion determined the evolution of the natural languages.

1. Ideophone
2 Onomatopoeia

1. Albanian contrary to the other European languages, is full of terms of c-v and c-v-c stucture, which in my opinion are the earliest word forms of the natural spoken languages, especially on verbs which are also the back bones of the other parts of the speech. How do they appear?
A primitive c-v structure is compunded by an 'ideo-sound' consonant + a 'fluid' vowel.

For example the consonant L evokes a sensation of movement, or displacement. Combined with a very 'unostacled' vowel like ë, it creates a primitive word 'lë'-(leave), which generated hundreds of other words with a similar semantics, not only in Albanian but in every European language. The closest one in that perspective is the the word of the c-v-c structure: (me) lësh-u(re[leas]e), by adding just another consonant which serves to slightly deviate the meaning. Then the word was borrowed from the languages of the Latin origin (ex. lëshu-->lascia(it)) and from them 'traveled' to neo-Latin ones, and from them to English.
Depending on which vowel follows the consonant we will have a bone(consonant)-flash(vowel) structure, bearing a new meaning very close to the orginal one. Ex.



lë----leave
la----left
ly-----colorare(paint)
lu-aj----play
lu-aj----cillo(move)

The process is long and complex, but for now is good enough to create an idea.

continues (2)

AND AGAIN YOUR COMPARE WITH GREEK IS OUTRAGEOUS,

WHY YOU USE WRONG WORDS THAT SOUND SAME BUT MEANS TOTTALY NOTHING?

English Leave Greek φευ (φυγη) Ιλασις until today the word is used by Greeks, but rare due to mostly use virb φευ-γω
in Pontic greeks as ιλασκω (virb)
in rest of Greeks as λασκα - χαλαρα etc
the most ancient exprension that Greeks use is
Εγεια μολα εγεια λεσσα
from υγειως μολησωμεν υγειως ιλασκωμεν
meaning With Health we leave with Health with return


I wonder why PIE must be Albanian Le and not Greek ila ?

now back to the words you use
English Leave Greek leipein (missing, connected with ανελιπως ) απαλλαγη (απο+αλλαγη = from+change)

telere popolo people with polis and polloi? πολις can be compared with Thracian polje wich means fench - small fortication perimeter, that is πολιτις means citizen that cares about the polis
polloi means many as you see it is written with double ll a law of greek grammar that when υ ισ αφτερ λυγρα (fluid liquid) ρ and l goes double
πολυ = plenty (compare plenty not people) goes polloi πολλοι
but Πολος (polar) goes poloi πολοι
λικε ρυθμος and αρρυθμια

MAN PLZ STOP ******** LATIN AND ANCIENT GREEK CAUSE YOU HAVE NO IDEA AT LEAST WHAT THE WORDS MEAN


your ΔΡΑΜΑ (drama) is so big that you don't understand that word LECTURE is after Greek word ΛΕΚΤΩΡ

Watch how you ***** Language



Lashte left palaios


παλαιος means Old not left
Makedonian Pellas Πελας
Aeolian Pelios Pilios Πηλιος
Ionian Παλαιος


No further comment
All the example given in Greek are fail
why cause you put them just to give prestige in your work, cause a mention to a correct ancient Greek word gives some prestige in a work,


search more
Θυρα
port
dera
door

as you see the aspirations are different, it is obviouw if search more to be driven to more Northern languages than to Latin and Greek
Κenge (kagkur-as gagkar-os)
Canto
Song !!!!!
Ωδη-ασμα

[Yetos]

2. Onomatopeia
As you might know onomatopeia is a word:



Try to scratch your skin, the immediate sound result will be krrrrr and Albanian language imitates it by a very 'loyal' word (me) kru which is kru-aj(standart Albanian).



The next closest sound in nature which results in a c(a)rving is grrrrr, which again gives an immediate Albanian immitative word: (me) grry or gërry-ej (carv-ing), a process usually resulting with a deeper scratch. The verb itself derives a noun:

gërry-ej---> gropë(hole)

the same Albanian(the same to mother language) verb has given at least one meaning in English:
'grave'.

When a reinforcing consonant sh is added in front of the onomatopeic word 'kru' in Albanian , a new word is being rendered(bearing an early perceveiment) (me) 'shkru' (write) which was borowed from the Latins to give 'scrive' and then in English 'script':



being the earliest writing the humanity has performed.

Now point Post

Ονοματοποιεια Greek word
means to create name, to give names to subjects

lets
scratch
if I use scratch for sharp an axe Ξεω Ξυνω (virb οξυνω ) from sound xxxx kssssss ( I scratch a man's back but not deep to make a mark)

Scratch
if I Scrath deeper and leave marks sound is hhrrrrr xxρρρρ so we extract virb χ(α)ρασ-ω haras-o and scratch is χαραγη

Scratch with Tool
so when I Scratch I get a result, but If I Use a tool how that will be
the tool must have sounds like hrrr and root of words make
in Greek make is ποιω so the meaning is I make scratces or Hrrrr nose with it
lets see Hr+poi -> Χραπις Hrapis sound laws of h->γ π ->f so Γραφις Graphis (the tool that is used to scratch deep enough to make Mark)
So Grafis γραφις work is γραφη Graphe graphi and the Virb is Γραφω Whraf-o inf Whraphein

so what does that mean? English Write is after Greek Whraph-ein


as you see the word Graphics Graphical is a Loan to English Language but not the word write

cause all languages have ονοματοποιεια

now the more deeper I dig the more I get a sound like uuuu (deeper sound)
so the hrrrrr goes to hur χυρ so extract Κυρτος virb κυρτ-ωνω Kurt-ono simmilar to English Curve

so IS ENGLISH CURVE AFTER GREEK ΚΥΡΤΩΝΩ?

the sound of krrr
Scratch by Hammer strike

now if I strike the hammer I produse sounds very stable or mettalic like K krrrr
so a virb that describes Mettalic strikes or Krush that can be exact is Κρου-ω (compare Kruaj!!!!)

so what that means? Crush κρουσις is after Albanian Kruaj? (crush after scratch?)


Now as you see by Using your Method I prove the opposite

so by Using Onomatopoieia you prove nothing, at least where you aim,


cause with same method I prove you that Albanian is rough Greek

THAT IS BECAUSE IE LANGUAGES HAVE RELATIONS

REMEMBER THAT MOST NATURE sound LANGUAGES of IE are the Slavic languages
so with your method it is more easier to be proved that Albanian is rough Slavic

consider that the most preservative IE language is Lithuanian

A joke that we use in Greece for scientific methods like the one you describe.

-in Japan they were kimono?,
-yes its like a coat with belt but little different
-oh I see
- You know kimono is a Greek word
-what?
-yes the word for the winter in Greek is χειμωνας (himonas) so in winter we wear coats so kimono is after Greek ximonas

Yet I believe that kimono is a word earlier than the time Greeks reach Nippon


remember all words have their own onomatopoieia which was not found by Albanians neither Greeks neither Latins but from early IE and followed its path of language evolution to provide modern languages


Your theory is based in assuptions that can be in every IE language,
with same assuptions I can prove that Germanic is after PIE before all other
and you deny examples like
aiwa dhi w->dh
womph dhemp w->dh

which are found also in other languages
aiwa αιγα w->γ
womph γομφιος w->γ

except if Albanians travel also to India so to give their onomatopoieia to Sanshqrit like the Greeks with word Kimono in the joke above,

[Zeus10]

for you info watch the video

it is only spoken by 5000 people mainly old who never wend to school, due to change of population and Turkish education
at least Linguistacally it is considered the most ancient IE language that is spoken today,




No Need more,

Yetos, I must ask you to stop with this baiting, it's entirely uncalled for.

Taranis, let's enjoy him. Trying to prove me wrong he confirmed my point that you are desperately trying to deny. The so called Ancient Greek Language has been named in the video Romaiika(The language of the Romans), because this is what the true Ancient Greeks were, Roman citizens or if you would like to use recently coined word 'nation', they were a Roman nation, that's is why they called themselves Ρωμαίοι.

[Yetos]

Taranis, let's enjoy him. Trying to prove me wrong he confirmed my point that you are desperately trying to deny. The so called Ancient Greek Language has been named in the video Romaiika(The language of the Romans), because this is what the true Ancient Greeks were, Roman citizens or if you would like to use recently coined word 'nation', they were a Roman nation, that's is why they called themselves Ρωμαίοι.

Funny isn't it

these people speak Archaic Greek Ionian estimated at about 700 BC old
but they call them shelves as Romans due to East roman empire

a mix of Persian Aryan and Greeks who over them pass Empires still resist
and see what ?






when people show the moon he see the Finger

Byzantine never existed as a terminology before 1800

The official name was ROMANS ΡΩΜΑΙΟΙ

Turks still recogn the Byzantines as East Roman and the language as Rumlar
for 600 years Turks name them Rums, and you see it as a joke?

You are not denying Glossology, But History also

if you knew little History then you could recogn that Byzantines were shelfed named Roman
and constantinoupolis as NOVA ROMA
inside byzantine there many Languages but Official was Romano-Latin and at the late times Greek

These Paople Speak ancient Greek and they name it as Roman due to late times EAST ROMAN EMPIRE LANGUAGE

sorry I am destroying your theories but I am tired of all propagandists who get paid by secret founds


TELL US PLZ how Byzantines name Their Shelfs?

go ahead tell Taranis and the rest who who read us how byzantines declere their shelves?
tell us how Albanian area noble's declare their shelfs, if not as Roman's

inside byzantine empire all citizen's were named Romans

and lingua Franca was Latin not Greek and that is why Aromani population still speak Latin and not Italian until the times of schisma,
after schisma and Maniakis Byzantine started to accept Greek as secondary to finalize to primary language

your are funny cause if you really are local and and ancient in Albania then surely you know that there were times your grand-grand Fathers were using the name Romans to declare them shelves

Remember that when Slaughter of non Christians were done the only way to save your shelve was to declare Roman and Christian

RUMEYIKA ΡΩΜΑΙΙΚΑ MEANS THE LANGUAGE OF EAST BYZANTINE EMPIRE
ΡΩΜΑΙΚΑ MEANS THE LANGUAGE OF WEST ROMAN EMPIRE


When your friend Mohamet II gave his orders after the fall of Nova ROMA he recogn all citizen's in many categories

Turks who should be Muslims and Turkish Speaking
Rumlars who were Christian and Greek Speaking

the pre Con/polis Fall

the ones who kept their religion but change language (Armenians Greeks Genovese-Venician Russian minorities)
the ones who kept their language and accept Islam (Pomaks Albanians Laz Arabs etc)

[Zeus10]

ahahahaha

These paople Speak ancient Greek language

Byzantine never existed as a terminology before 1800

The official name was ROMANS ΡΩΜΑΙΟΙ

Turks still recogn the Byzantines as East Roman and the language as Rumlar

if you knew little History then you could recogn that Byzantines were shelfed named Roman and constantinoupolis as NOVA ROMA

Excactly, thank you.

TELL US PLZ how Byzantines name Their Shelfs?

βιβλιοθήκη

tell us how Albanian area noble's declare their shelfs, if not as Roman's

Nope we call them 'rafte'.

[Yetos]

βιβλιοθήκη



Nope we call them 'rafte'.

ahahahahahaha

Byzantines call them shelves βιβλιοθηκη?


ahahahaha

so their monograms and their visas were saying rafte?

ahahahahaha


Thank you

Greek colonists from Milletus Sinope etc Keep language as its proto forms for more than 2600 years under Persian Roman Turkish infuence and pressure

and you see it as a joke?




NO comment

[Taranis]

Let's end this charade. Closed.