QUOTE=xyz;387180]Hi everybody. I am new here but I would try to contribute as much as I can
Here is a link that may explain the link between PIE and Albanian words.
starling.rinet.ru I hope you would find it useful.[/QUOTE]
I would say it is pretty clear that Albanian is a Satem language, because native words adhere to it (*k´ generally becomes "th" in Albanian, and *g´ and *g´h generally become "dh" in Albanian), meaning that apparent Centum words must be borrowed (the most common Centum language from which is borrowed into Albanian, of course, is Latin). I disagree about the idea that Albanian "falls between", because it is simply not possible for sound laws to be in free variation.Taranis
Regarding Albanian being Satem and Illyrian being Centum, from some of my readings in the net, I've understood that there is not enough knowledge about the Illyrian to determine that. Also Albanian can behave sometimes as Centum and is not clear-cut that Albanian is Satem, so it falls in between. Lately the linguists cannot agree in the division between Satem and Centum if I am correct!!
As for Centum/Satem, it is true that the original idea that Centum and Satem were two early ancient branches into which Proto-Indo-European split is incorrect. This was disproven by the existence of Tocharian, which is an extinct Centum language that was once spoken in western China. The more modern idea is that Satemization was an innovation that occured in proximity to the core area of Indo-European, and that those branches in greater distance (Celtic, Germanic, Italic, Greek, Tocharian) did not participate in it.
In any case, the question is what in ancient times the linguistic situation on the Western Balkans really did look like. While the situation with the Illyrians is unclear, what is a fact is that some Illyrian names show clearly Centum characteristics.
Regarding continuity, as can be seen from loanwords, the ancestors of the Albanians must have lived approximately near their present-day location since before Roman times.I will agree with you when you state that Albanian has many words shared with Illyrian. You also should add that Albanians live in the territory described as Illyrian proprie dicti(check the spelling) or as real Illyrian. Furthermore I should add that there is no major migration movement recorded in that area since the Roman Empire with the exception of Slav movement, also there is continuity in that area. We also should agree in a proven point that the Albanian have borrowed from Latin since the 1 century BC and before that from Greeks. ( I need to check when were the Dacians, Thracians and Macedon’s concurred by the Romans).
This is correct. However, as I pointed out earlier, if you look at the etymologies of native naval terms found in Albanian, they are circumscriptions of naval terms using a different origin, like "deep" for "sea" or "dish"/"vessel" for "ship". The critical question here is, was this lack of native naval terminology already the case in ancient Albanian? There are two explanations for this: the first is that Albanians are not native to the sea and instead did only migrate there, the other is that ancient Albanian indeed did have native terminology, but that for some reason these terms got replaced. I must admit, I have difficulties to imagine how the latter could have happened.So the only controversy should be the naval terms although not everything is borrowed.
Pro and Contra on what issue? That Albanian is derived from Illyrian?So you have Pro and Cons, but the Pro outweigh the Cons