Quote Originally Posted by Taranis View Post
To get back to the linguistic issue, in general the unique feature of the Germanic languages is that in comparison to Proto-Indo-European (and indeed most other IE languages), sounds are shifted in Germanic. This is primarily according to Grimm's Law:

*p > *f (Latin "pater" vs. English "father")
*t > *θ
*k > *h (Latin "centum" vs. English "hundred")
*kw > *hw (Latin "quod" vs. English "what")

*b > *p
*d > *t
*g > *k
*gw > *kw

*bh > *b
*dh > *d
*gh > *g
*gwh > *gw

In addition, there's another law at work (Verner's Law) which regards the sounds *p, *t, *k, *kw ending up voiced (*β, *ð, *ɣ, *ɣw) if they are following an unstressed syllable.
I'm totally ignorant in Lingiustic but in what way the Grimm's law does differ from the armenian sounds shift or the other lanuage sounds shifts (P and Q celtic...)?