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so, if I understand well, possibly a pre-I-E old european (mesolithic? older?) language, after that technical terms from Eastern Mediterranea (Levant) send there by the elite that accultured Atlantic coastal populations? just before the I-Eans arriving?
Why not? Some say (it's debated) that iberian language was a mixture of an undetermined non-I-E element, an basco-aquitan non I-E element, and some celtic loans... Some others note common terms in basque, sardignan substrate and other mediterranean coastal languages (albanian too, I believe) - maybe not so old as the basis of proto-basque but later the words send there by this supposed maritime elite I was speaking about?
good night (it 's good for the brain work)
What if R1b folks did not enter Europe through Balkan but went to North Africa and then divide themselves into two groups. One group entered Europe across Gibraltar and the other went south (huge number of R1b around Cameroon)?
That could explain why some population lack "gedrosian" component and it would also mean that we should look for that component in some sub Saharan population.