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Thread: Neolithic farmers: Southwest Europeans or West Asians ?

  1. #26
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    Quote Originally Posted by ElHorsto View Post
    Right, those are two hypotheses which may be independent from each other. If one of them appears wrong (near-eastern origin of basque language), then the other still can be right.
    Not sure if I already mentioned, but an IE-origin of the Gedrosian component by land route into western europe is questioned a bit once more when looking at the genetic peculiarities of the basques, which are obvious, but surprisingly not by a decreased gedrosian component, but by decreased north_euro component instead, similar to Sardinia. So it could be possible that IE might have brought only north_euro components to WE, without gedrosian.



    Speculation: Maybe the basque language really was originally based on old european languages, but later got mixed with advanced terms (f.i. metal-working) from megalithic peoples and others.
    I find interesting your analysis
    so, if I understand well, possibly a pre-I-E old european (mesolithic? older?) language, after that technical terms from Eastern Mediterranea (Levant) send there by the elite that accultured Atlantic coastal populations? just before the I-Eans arriving?
    Why not? Some say (it's debated) that iberian language was a mixture of an undetermined non-I-E element, an basco-aquitan non I-E element, and some celtic loans... Some others note common terms in basque, sardignan substrate and other mediterranean coastal languages (albanian too, I believe) - maybe not so old as the basis of proto-basque but later the words send there by this supposed maritime elite I was speaking about?
    good night (it 's good for the brain work)

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    Quote Originally Posted by ElHorsto View Post
    Not sure if I already mentioned, but an IE-origin of the Gedrosian component by land route into western europe is questioned a bit once more when looking at the genetic peculiarities of the basques, which are obvious, but surprisingly not by a decreased gedrosian component, but by decreased north_euro component instead, similar to Sardinia. So it could be possible that IE might have brought only north_euro components to WE, without gedrosian.
    Although I have to admit that the recent neolithic genetic samples support a different story for scandinavia than for iberia. Maybe the various R1b lineages could support these different stories too, I don't know. Without the basques, the IE explanation for R1b and "gedrosian" would be somewhat likely. It's undecidable at the moment.

  3. #28
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    What if R1b folks did not enter Europe through Balkan but went to North Africa and then divide themselves into two groups. One group entered Europe across Gibraltar and the other went south (huge number of R1b around Cameroon)?

    That could explain why some population lack "gedrosian" component and it would also mean that we should look for that component in some sub Saharan population.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Haustor View Post
    What if R1b folks did not enter Europe through Balkan but went to North Africa and then divide themselves into two groups. One group entered Europe across Gibraltar and the other went south (huge number of R1b around Cameroon)?

    That could explain why some population lack "gedrosian" component and it would also mean that we should look for that component in some sub Saharan population.
    lol, because they are two completely different branches of R1b.

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