For example I find today the Yamna homeland harder to defend; and no more the "absolute true" like it was seen before, now that we know that there are no R1a among them.
Because Yamna was probably the homland for LAST COMMON stage language of todays languages.
People, were lived before that period, and certainly were speaking on some pre-proto-IE.
Situation is similar to for example romanic languages.
Last common ancestor was Latin from ca. V century,
which has roots to Rome about I CE. But it is clear, that
Romans didn't fall from heaven in V century or even in I
century, but were earlier, and their language replaced
earlier languages whith earliest stages:
1) Latynian dialects
2) Italics languages
3) Celtic languages (from common Italo-celtic roots) which themselves replaced earlier for example
4) lusitanic
It could be even that, like romanic languages would be replaced by germanic languages (whith te same subgroup Italo-celto-some germanic)
So we would have another stage and level of the same language (sub)group, replacing neibouring tounges.
But it would doesn't mean, that this people didn't exist before, before they replaced language or dialect.
Indoeuropeans-people, existed before Yamna.
Yamna is simply last common stage of
present day languages.
That's all. Nothing more, and nothing less.
Where they lived earlier?
Probably in
- Dniestr-Boh Culture,
- Dniepr-Donets Culture,
- Samara Culture
ceturies before Yamna.
- some where in Karelia 7000 years ago,
- somewhere in Smolensk-aeria
- maybe were some small groups in Europe among Old-Europeans, like this R1b in Katalonia 7000 y.a.
But if they existed, they where finaly replaced by post-Yamna-Indoeuropean language/dialect.
So I don't understand this laughing about even possibility, that IEans (people) were somewhere else before Yamna.
Because what? Because was prooved, that common ancestor of present day languages existed in some place in some time?
Of course it was like that, but it doesn't mean, that people falled from heaven at that time.
If every Indoeuropean language, would by replaced by Latin, it would means, that history of Indoeuropeans started in I or V century CE?
This would be a nonsense.
Besides, still exist a theories, which placed common pra-language even 9 thousand years ago.
But they are scientists, they can do such a thing.
