Associating languages with haplogroups? Then R1b Basks, Germans, Latins, Irish, Chad should have spoken the same type of language.
DuPidh German, Latin, and Celtic Irish are from one language family, we can explain how the Basks received R1b, Chad R1b separated from IE R1b in the Mesolithic.
The better association is of course between Languages and Cultures, Cultures occupy some territory at some point in time, some subclades of Haplogroups can be associated with some Culture at any given time, if a culture expands its territory in the form of a migration, then the haplogroups of that culture will move to new territory, the language outcome of this migration is of two kinds: 1- the language of the migrants spread with them, assimilating the old inhabitants with their male lineages 2- the migrants adopt a new language, that is the language of the old inhabitants.
In theory, the R1a and R1b that migrated from the Yamna horizon spread the IE languages, at any place we find them today they arrived there speaking some IE language, even the Bask subclade, the original R1b that got there spoke IE, but for some reason, adopted the language of the original inhabitants.
People don't change their language because some neighboring culture is "cool", that's difficult even today, there has to be extensive contact between them, and that happens only with a migration.
If the Natufians spoke proto Afro-Asiatic, then their migrations should have carried male lineages that were present in Natufian into at least the immediate periphery of the Levant, or in the best case, all Afro-Asiatic territory. the subclade found in Natufian was E-M123 ? or it's immediate ancestor, but that's only strong in the Near East, other subclades of E1b1b take over in Africa.