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motatalea
14-06-09, 07:46
Which words of vocabulary are more dominant in Norman language of moder day Normandy in france ,Is it Scandinavian words or gallo-romans words?

Maciamo
14-06-09, 10:54
Modern Norman is a Gallo-Romance language with a few Scandinavian words. The medieval Danes who settled in Normandy quickly adopted (Old) French as their main language. It is also them who exported French to England. The mix of Norman French and Old English resulted in modern English.

motatalea
15-06-09, 01:29
Modern Norman is a Gallo-Romance language with a few Scandinavian words. The medieval Danes who settled in Normandy quickly adopted (Old) French as their main language. It is also them who exported French to England. The mix of Norman French and Old English resulted in modern English.

1-but why they adopted french language? why they didnot export danish language to england rather than french?
2-and why english people were affected alot to norman language and why they adopted it?

Maciamo
15-06-09, 11:00
1. The Normans became vassal of the king of France in exchange of the land of Normandy. They didn't settle on empty lands but mixed with the local people (who were more numerous), married with them, and within a few generations they all spoke French.

2. The Normans invaded and conquered England. In France they had become vassals, but in England they had become the new rulers of the country, which is why they imposed their language on the existing population. Well, actually Norman French was only used by the nobility and in matters of government, law, justice and in the military. Ordinary people continued to speak Old English, but with thousands of new terms from French entering their daily speech. Later, scholars and educated people introduced more and more words from Latin and French into the English language, which came to be used side by side with existing Germanic words and English became a hybrid language. That is why words from Latin or French are usually more formal, academic or technical than those from Old English.

motatalea
15-06-09, 20:56
1. The Normans became vassal of the king of France in exchange of the land of Normandy. They didn't settle on empty lands but mixed with the local people (who were more numerous), married with them, and within a few generations they all spoke French.

2. The Normans invaded and conquered England. In France they had become vassals, but in England they had become the new rulers of the country, which is why they imposed their language on the existing population. Well, actually Norman French was only used by the nobility and in matters of government, law, justice and in the military. Ordinary people continued to speak Old English, but with thousands of new terms from French entering their daily speech. Later, scholars and educated people introduced more and more words from Latin and French into the English language, which came to be used side by side with existing Germanic words and English became a hybrid language. That is why words from Latin or French are usually more formal, academic or technical than those from Old English.

1-you note that Normandy is germanic because of the normans who came from denmark and invaded it then intermixed with aboriginal Gallo-romans .although most of Normandy are gallo romans people but it is definitely considered germanic ,now you will see a very typical example about all france at whole ,france is also invaded by germanic franks who intermarried with aboriginal Gallo-romans so it must be considered germanic too ,mustnot it?

2-also did hitler considered france to be germanic as england? as i know that Dutch people (Holland,Belgium and northern haif of france except britanny)are germanic people like english,danes ,germans,swedes,icelanders and norwegians so what about french in nazi thoughts?

iam sorry for inconvenience Mr maciamo ,iam really very thankful to your efforts and take care

Maciamo
16-06-09, 10:03
1-you note that Normandy is germanic because of the normans who came from denmark and invaded it then intermixed with aboriginal Gallo-romans .although most of Normandy are gallo romans people but it is definitely considered germanic ,now you will see a very typical example about all france at whole ,france is also invaded by germanic franks who intermarried with aboriginal Gallo-romans so it must be considered germanic too ,mustnot it?

France is an admixture of people from many regions of Europe (Scandinavia, Benelux, Germany, Italy, Spain, Greece...). Normandy is considered "partly Germanic". But actually in terms of genetics, if we consider that the first true Germanic people were the Scandinavian admixture of I1, I2b, R1a and R1b, then the only region that is still predominantly Germanic nowadays is Scandinavia, the Netherlands, northern Germany, and possibly parts of Eastern England. The rest is all mixed. The Germanic element of southern Germany is in fact smaller than the combination of Near-Eastern farmers and Celto-Italic people.



2-also did hitler considered france to be germanic as england? as i know that Dutch people (Holland,Belgium and northern haif of france except britanny)are germanic people like english,danes ,germans,swedes,icelanders and norwegians so what about french in nazi thoughts?
iam sorry for inconvenience Mr maciamo ,iam really very thankful to your efforts and take care

Hitler considered parts of northern and eastern France (Flanders-Artois, Alsace, Lorraine and maybe Normandy) as Germanic for historical reasons, because these regions were part of the Holy Roman Empire until the 16th or 17th century. There were no genetic tests at the time, and anyway the Nazi concept of Germanicity relies more on history, culture and language than on genes. In fact, there is less autosomal difference between two random Europeans than there is between two random Indians, or Iranians, or Nigerians. Yet, a lot of people consider Indians as one ethnic group and Europeans as many. This also doesn't make sense. It is a good example that popular ideas are often scientifically mistaken.