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can anyone here tell me Proto-Greek and Myceanean Greek belong to Satem group or belong to Centum? Thanks
but sir , how can Greek be a Centum language when it's cognate languages(such as Amenia Slavic ) are all Satem languages ?
what I mean " cognate languages"is Graeco-Aryan of course .
That is the Linguistic connections, that for some can be used to show many things, among them origin, proto forms etc,
Ιt has to do with many things except the split to K and Sh.
grammar Syntax etc, forms of infinitive, syllaber system, isotones etc
By that we see that homerick Greek are connected with Aryan, so we find a step, a level closer to PIE etc etc,
Hettit language which is estimated at 2000 BC about was neither Centum neither Satem,
That can explain a lot,
I agree with Yetos answering Zeus: only a religious language: from what sources???
It is a known fact that throughout history the clergy has held a ruling position, and has differentiated themselves from the common people. The knowledge and education was a privilege only to the clergy, who were at the same time the rulers. One of the most known rulers in the history are the so called "Romans", whose elite as any other theocracy is pursuant to the doctrine of a particular religion or religious group. They were using an excellent Greek, in the law courts, in the political debate, in the speeches, in the liturgy, in the administrative, rhetoric and esthetics and especially in religious literature and inscriptions, BEFORE the so called Latin was fully developed, and used beside the ""Greek"" language. This is the reason we find Greek, in every Roman "path":
which is nowhere to be proven as a vernacular language.
I agree with Yetos here, as a whole - greek seams having been a 'lingua franca' for trade more than a religious language: latine was a religious language and became the language of (religious) intellectuals in the Middle Ages because at that time the only instructed people was under the strong control of catholics- state = church at that time - but even at that stage, latin was not the language of folk and never became to be -
and let's remember that Roman Empire has not always been a religious state exportating its believings , not at its beginning when greek was the 'intellectual elite' s language - Roma relied more in military force than in religious power (individual religion, not a state one)-
Church or trade language, diplomatic, administrative, working or intellectuals one, the so called "Greek" language, always appears as a vehicular language. It has been documented as a religious language on the very start:
and kept the same appearance in the secular literature, widely considered "Ancient" which "misteriously" has been writen many-many centuries after, like this oldest Iliad copy, which belongs to the 10-th Century AD.
or like this other "ancient" text:
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