I have been double-tested as positive for both R1a (M420) and R1b (M343).
Has anyone ever come across this before?
I can only think of 4 explanations:
1. Both tests were flawed
2. One of R1a and R1b is a subclade of the other (predominantly back-mutated)
3. Either the M343 or the M420 mutation has occurred on more than one occasion
4. I have mis-read the results.
Any thoughts?
Has anyone ever come across this before?
I can only think of 4 explanations:
1. Both tests were flawed
2. One of R1a and R1b is a subclade of the other (predominantly back-mutated)
3. Either the M343 or the M420 mutation has occurred on more than one occasion
4. I have mis-read the results.
Any thoughts?