a sample of ~600 shows that 71% of Saudi Arabians carry J1-M267 (J-P58 mutation)

ZTD

Regular Member
Messages
15
Reaction score
2
Points
0
it's more common among Tribal Arabians areas (reaches 90+%) , and less in the coast areas and holy lands in western Arabia because of Hajj (pilgrimage) and people coming from all over the world and some of them stay and don't go back home
here's a picture of an old man his grand Son is carrying the J1-M267 > J-P58 > J-l858 > FGC1696 > FGC1713 Sheikh of "Mutair" tribe
 
Yes and they did expand their genes, anyone who says otherwise is in denial

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC379148/

What do you think of j1 in dagestan, there is an area with 90% J1, do they look quite arab to you other than their slightly lighter skin tone?
As was explained before, the J1 in Dagestan has nothing to do with the J1 found among Arabs which is mainly under P58>FGC11. J1 in Dagestan belongs mainly to Z1828>Z1842 which is a native CHG (Caucasian Hunter Gatherer) haplogroup. The TMRCA of J1 Dagestanis and J1 Arabs (and other Semites for that matter) is ~18,200ybp placing their common ancestor way back to the Paleolithic, it is absurd to claim that they are related. J1 itself likely stems from the area between Eastern Anatolia, the Caucasus and Iran https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2987219/.
 
As was explained before, the J1 in Dagestan has nothing to do with the J1 found among Arabs which is mainly under P58>FGC11. J1 in Dagestan belongs mainly to Z1828>Z1842 which is a native CHG (Caucasian Hunter Gatherer) haplogroup. The TMRCA of J1 Dagestanis and J1 Arabs (and other Semites for that matter) is ~18,200ybp placing their common ancestor way back to the Paleolithic, it is absurd to claim that they are related. J1 itself likely stems from the area between Eastern Anatolia, the Caucasus and Iran https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2987219/.
Imo J1 originated in Yemen, no one would move there to harsh conditions nearer the equator from north. Some of these yemen arabs would have moved north out of general curiosity and settled elsewhere but most J1 movement is definitely from Arab expansion year 650+. Mutated sub clades of J1 would have formed over time. It is not a coincidence that so many countries now have Arabic as main language and a lot of J1 (30%+) and even people like Armenians and Israel who rejected islam have over 10% J1. Crime/rape was normal back then, especially in times of conquest and war not to mention Muslim arabs had many wives making it more effective to spread their genes

https://qph.fs.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-d96f0acbe960f31abe191f45aaa1c95f

As for dagestan j1, don't you find it odd how are they kinda extremist when it comes to their religion and have a lot of j1. Almost like a family tradition? Has dagestan j1 actually been found dating back before year 600 in that region? If yes, they could still be arabs who moved out of saudi Arabia and settled there before Islam but then were reunited with the conquests, later russia took over that land and they became more russian culturally/linguistically
 
Imo J1 originated in Yemen, no one would move there to harsh conditions nearer the equator from north. Some of these yemen arabs would have moved north out of general curiosity and settled elsewhere but most J1 movement is definitely from Arab expansion year 650+. Mutated sub clades of J1 would have formed over time. It is not a coincidence that so many countries now have Arabic as main language and a lot of J1 (30%+) and even people like Armenians and Israel who rejected islam have over 10% J1. Crime/rape was normal back then, especially in times of conquest and war not to mention Muslim arabs had many wives making it more effective to spread their genes

https://qph.fs.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-d96f0acbe960f31abe191f45aaa1c95f

As for dagestan j1, don't you find it odd how are they kinda extremist when it comes to their religion and have a lot of j1. Almost like a family tradition? Has dagestan j1 actually been found dating back before year 600 in that region? If yes, they could still be arabs who moved out of saudi Arabia and settled there before Islam but then were reunited with the conquests, later russia took over that land and they became more russian culturally/linguistically
You should really read up on Y-DNA haplogroups, I can see that you don’t know much. J1 certainly didn’t originate in Yemen. J1 reaches highest diversity in the area between Eastern Anatolia, the Caucasus and Western Iran as well as the oldest sample being from Palaeolithic Georgia. This all clearly points towards a CHG origin. J1 only migrated south into the Levant during the Chalcolithic or Early Bronze Age where it was then absorbed by Porto-Semites and expanded south with them. Even based on aDNA we see that J1 only pops up during that timeframe (and after) in the Levant.
J-Z1842 was found in Kura-Araxes samples from Dagestan, way before any Arabs. I already told you this but you seem to have trouble understanding. You’ll probably still end up writing nonsense on how somehow the CHG J1 samples are Arabs from Yemen.
 
You should really read up on Y-DNA haplogroups, I can see that you don’t know much. J1 certainly didn’t originate in Yemen. J1 reaches highest diversity in the area between Eastern Anatolia, the Caucasus and Western Iran as well as the oldest sample being from Palaeolithic Georgia. This all clearly points towards a CHG origin. J1 only migrated south into the Levant during the Chalcolithic or Early Bronze Age where it was then absorbed by Porto-Semites and expanded south with them. Even based on aDNA we see that J1 only pops up during that timeframe (and after) in the Levant.
J-Z1842 was found in Kura-Araxes samples from Dagestan, way before any Arabs. I already told you this but you seem to have trouble understanding. You’ll probably still end up writing nonsense on how somehow the CHG J1 samples are Arabs from Yemen.

Ok but according to you arabs (who are mostly j1 today) did not expand their genetics beyond their land? Really? They somehow managed to change religion and most notable and extreme, the language of so many different lands and did this all peacefully whilst entering foreign land? The real world isn't fairy tales and princesses. The tax they imposed was on purpose so the poor couldn't afford to have families and give up their women to the Muslims who could have multiple. When you have the weapons and the wealth, you can take as many women as you please

Here is what they were doing from the start with muhammad, he had 13 wives+:

"Rayhana was originally a member of the Banu Nadir tribe who married a man from the Banu Qurayza. After the Banu Qurayza were defeated by the armies of Muhammad in the Siege of the Banu Qurayza neighborhood, Rayhana was among those enslaved, while the men were executed."

J1 in North East Africa has been proven to be linked to arabs from yemen/Saudi, if you could explain to me how mutations of haplogroups happen maybe that would explain some different j1 sub clades in the middle east and south europe
 
Ok but according to you arabs (who are mostly j1 today) did not expand their genetics beyond their land? Really? They somehow managed to change religion and most notable and extreme, the language of so many different lands and did this all peacefully whilst entering foreign land? The real world isn't fairy tales and princesses. The tax they imposed was on purpose so the poor couldn't afford to have families and give up their women to the Muslims who could have multiple. When you have the weapons and the wealth, you can take as many women as you please

Here is what they were doing from the start with muhammad, he had 13 wives+:

"Rayhana was originally a member of the Banu Nadir tribe who married a man from the Banu Qurayza. After the Banu Qurayza were defeated by the armies of Muhammad in the Siege of the Banu Qurayza neighborhood, Rayhana was among those enslaved, while the men were executed."

J1 in North East Africa has been proven to be linked to arabs from yemen/Saudi, if you could explain to me how mutations of haplogroups happen maybe that would explain some different j1 sub clades in the middle east and south europe
Sure they spread their genetics, but not in the areas you think they did. Arabic genetic input is very rare in places like Anatolia, the Caucasus and Balkans. In some of those regions it's practically nonexistent. They mainly spread their influence around the areas of North Africa, the Arabian peninsula, Levant and areas of Mesopotamia. Read the J1 Eupedia article, and other haplogroup articles.
 
Sure they spread their genetics, but not in the areas you think they did. Arabic genetic input is very rare in places like Anatolia, the Caucasus and Balkans. In some of those regions it's practically nonexistent. They mainly spread their influence around the areas of North Africa, the Arabian peninsula, Levant and areas of Mesopotamia. Read the J1 Eupedia article, and other haplogroup articles.
Why would they only spread their genes in the East and Spain/portugal but not in the middle East? I cannot take that logic seriously when you look at history, especially considering that middle east was closer to the Arab tribes. So if arabs did not spread j1 into Middle East what did they spread because they spread something

Why do places like Syria, Iran and Azerbaijan have huge amounts of j1? (also Turkey, Armenia, dagestan etc). Do you know the history of the Arab conquests or not?
Yes sure some j1 would be not from conquest, but only a few. You will say that j1 would have also come from Jews but have Jews been confirmed to have had j1 1500 years ago or did they have a different majority before arab conquest? What is the original Jewish haplogroup?

Also ottoman were not turkic, where is your proof for this? They had arab names and used the Arab language, maybe they had some turkic mothers in their ancestral line.

"words of foreign origin heavily outnumbered native Turkish words, with Arabic and Persian vocabulary accounting for up to 88% of the Ottoman vocabulary"

The ottoman (osman/uthman) were continuing the conquests from their ancestors but now into Europe, they were mixed with iranians because arabs had conquered that land a long time ago

"By 651, most of the urban centers in Iranian lands, with the notable exception of the Caspian provinces (Tabaristan) and Transoxiana, had come under the domination of the Arab armies. Many localities fought against the invaders; ultimately, none were successful. In fact, although Arabs had established hegemony over most of the country, many cities rose in rebellion by killing the Arab governor or attacking their garrisons. Eventually, military reinforcements quashed the insurgency and imposed Islamic control. The violent subjugation of Bukhara is a case in point: conversion to Islam was gradual, partially as the result of this violent resistance; however, Zoroastrian scriptures were burnt and many priests were executed. However, the Persians began to reassert themselves by maintaining Persian language and culture. Islam would become the dominant religion late in the Middle Ages."

Please use some common sense here and learn from written history, every single article says that early arabs killed men and kept several women as slaves. All you have to identity is which haplogroups they spread
 
Why would they only spread their genes in the East and Spain/portugal but not in the middle East? I cannot take that logic seriously when you look at history, especially considering that middle east was closer to the Arab tribes. So if arabs did not spread j1 into Middle East what did they spread because they spread something

Why do places like Syria, Iran and Azerbaijan have huge amounts of j1? (also Turkey, Armenia, dagestan etc). Do you know the history of the Arab conquests or not?
Yes sure some j1 would be not from conquest, but only a few. You will say that j1 would have also come from Jews but have Jews been confirmed to have had j1 1500 years ago or did they have a different majority before arab conquest? What is the original Jewish haplogroup?

Also ottoman were not turkic, where is your proof for this? They had arab names and used the Arab language, maybe they had some turkic mothers in their ancestral line.

"words of foreign origin heavily outnumbered native Turkish words, with Arabic and Persian vocabulary accounting for up to 88% of the Ottoman vocabulary"

The ottoman (osman/uthman) were continuing the conquests from their ancestors but now into Europe, they were mixed with iranians because arabs had conquered that land a long time ago

"By 651, most of the urban centers in Iranian lands, with the notable exception of the Caspian provinces (Tabaristan) and Transoxiana, had come under the domination of the Arab armies. Many localities fought against the invaders; ultimately, none were successful. In fact, although Arabs had established hegemony over most of the country, many cities rose in rebellion by killing the Arab governor or attacking their garrisons. Eventually, military reinforcements quashed the insurgency and imposed Islamic control. The violent subjugation of Bukhara is a case in point: conversion to Islam was gradual, partially as the result of this violent resistance; however, Zoroastrian scriptures were burnt and many priests were executed. However, the Persians began to reassert themselves by maintaining Persian language and culture. Islam would become the dominant religion late in the Middle Ages."

Please use some common sense here and learn from written history, every single article says that early arabs killed men and kept several women as slaves. All you have to identity is which haplogroups they spread
I have explained things to you very clearly but you still choose to carry on being stubborn and ignorant. Who even mentioned Spain and Portugal? Please stop living in this little fantasy of yours where you just dream things up. I clearly said they spread their influence across the MENA region (Levant, Mesopotamia, Arabian Peninsula and North Africa). I have explained how Caucasian J1 has nothing to do with that of the Arabs and other Semitic speakers, but you'll still carry typing up your fantasies on how local CHG clades are in fact of Arab origin. The Ottomans weren't Arabs but Turks, this is basic knowledge, having Arabs names means nothing. It's also highly likely that they were R-Z93 based on the testing of living descendants.

Please read an article on haplogroups before you type up pure BS that makes no sense, learn how to differentiate subclades.
 
I have explained things to you very clearly but you still choose to carry on being stubborn and ignorant. Who even mentioned Spain and Portugal? Please stop living in this little fantasy of yours where you just dream things up. I clearly said they spread their influence across the MENA region (Levant, Mesopotamia, Arabian Peninsula and North Africa). I have explained how Caucasian J1 has nothing to do with that of the Arabs and other Semitic speakers, but you'll still carry typing up your fantasies on how local CHG clades are in fact of Arab origin. The Ottomans weren't Arabs but Turks, this is basic knowledge, having Arabs names means nothing. It's also highly likely that they were R-Z93 based on the testing of living descendants.
Please read an article on haplogroups before you type up pure BS that makes no sense, learn how to differentiate subclades.
https://forebears.io/surnames/othman
https://forebears.io/surnames/uthman
https://forebears.io/surnames/osman

There is zero proof that ottoman were turkic, the leader was definitely of arab origin. They came from regions which arabs had destroyed and conquered long ago and their armies always consisted of "volunteers", some of which obviously wouldn't have been arabs, especially later on. Maybe read some history before saying I am not making sense. History states that early arabs killed men and kept women as slaves, a lot of them.

Here is what Iranians think about that period since they know more about this than we do:

https://www.quora.com/Why-do-Persia...e-conquered-other-places-including-Arab-lands

https://www.quora.com/What-do-Iranians-think-of-Omar-Second-Caliph

So since you are an expert in this field, if you can find which haplogroup sub clades the early arabs forced into the Iranian people (just as an example) that would be great
Bear in mind that "Islam" was something that was building up for centuries for arabs who felt discriminated and humiliated so they found an out to unleash onto those around them, I am sure you are clever enough to know that man made religion has nothing to do with god, it is politics.

https://qph.fs.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-17ebc3b0b0eeccbd164594a6ab7f2d6d-c
 
https://forebears.io/surnames/othman
https://forebears.io/surnames/uthman
https://forebears.io/surnames/osman

There is zero proof that ottoman were turkic, the leader was definitely of arab origin. They came from regions which arabs had destroyed and conquered long ago and their armies always consisted of "volunteers", some of which obviously wouldn't have been arabs, especially later on. Maybe read some history before saying I am not making sense. History states that early arabs killed men and kept women as slaves, a lot of them.

Here is what Iranians think about that period since they know more about this than we do:

https://www.quora.com/Why-do-Persia...e-conquered-other-places-including-Arab-lands

https://www.quora.com/What-do-Iranians-think-of-Omar-Second-Caliph

So since you are an expert in this field, if you can find which haplogroup sub clades the early arabs forced into the Iranian people (just as an example) that would be great
Bear in mind that "Islam" was something that was building up for centuries for arabs who felt discriminated and humiliated so they found an out to unleash onto those around them, I am sure you are clever enough to know that man made religion has nothing to do with god, it is politics.

https://qph.fs.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-17ebc3b0b0eeccbd164594a6ab7f2d6d-c
Lol are you seriously using Forbears.io as a source? There is no credible historian or academic that believes the Ottoman dynasty was Arabic in origin, it has been proven that they were Turks so I don't know what's the point in discussing this. They came from Central Asia and were Turkic speakers originally adhering to Tengrism and not Islam, nothing to do with Arabs. You really think having names of Arabic origin makes them Arabs? By this logic most Albanians are of Asian origin and most of the medieval nobility was either of Greek or Slavic origin, it makes no sense. Ethnicities and names don't always go hand in hand. I think he should also know that Arabic wasn't all that important of a language in the Ottoman Empire. Arabic was only really used a language for Islamic studies, Ottoman Turkish was the official language. Plus Persian was more widely used in the Empire than Arabic.
You have an obsession with Arabs.

The founder of the dynasty was Osman and his father, according to oral tradition, was a Turk by the name of Ertugrul (a Turkic name btw) who was the leader of the Kayi tribe. The Kayi were an Oghuz tribe from Iran that migrated west into Anatolia in order to escape the Mongols. In Anatolia they entered the service of the Seljuks (a Turkic state btw). Originally the Oghuz were from the area around the Altai mountain range (around Kazakhstan, Mongolia etc). Nothing Arabic here.

I'm not going to spoonfeed you everything, if you want to find out about something do some proper research. I understand that Islam (like other religions) is man made, but I don't see what this has to do with the discussion.
 
Last edited:
Lol are you seriously using Forbears.io as a source? There is no credible historian or academic that believes the Ottoman dynasty was Arabic in origin, it has been proven that they were Turks so I don't know what's the point in discussing this. They came from Central Asia and were Turkic speakers originally adhering to Tengrism and not Islam, nothing to do with Arabs. You really think having names of Arabic origin makes them Arabs? By this logic most Albanians are of Asian origin and most of the medieval nobility was either of Greek or Slavic origin, it makes no sense. Ethnicities and names don't always go hand in hand. I think he should also know that Arabic wasn't all that important of a language in the Ottoman Empire. Arabic was only really used a language for Islamic studies, Ottoman Turkish was the official language. Plus Persian was more widely used in the Empire than Arabic.
You have an obsession with Arabs.
The founder of the dynasty was Osman and his father, according to oral tradition, was a Turk by the name of Ertugrul (a Turkic name btw) who was the leader of the Kayi tribe. The Kayi were an Oghuz tribe from Iran that migrated west into Anatolia in order to escape the Mongols. In Anatolia they entered the service of the Seljuks (a Turkic state btw). Originally the Oghuz were from the area around the Altai mountain range (around Kazakhstan, Mongolia etc). Nothing Arabic here.
I'm not going to spoonfeed you everything, if you want to find out about something do some proper research. I understand that Islam (like other religions) is man made, but I don't see what this has to do with the discussion.

Why do you keep making things up, there is zero proof that osman was turkic.

"According to Ottoman tradition, Osman I, founder of Ottoman Empire, was descended from the Kayı tribe.[1][2][3][4] This claim has, however, been called into serious question by many modern historians. The only evidence for the Ottomans' Kayı descent came from genealogies written during the fifteenth century, more than a hundred years after the life of Osman. More significantly, the earliest genealogies written by the Ottomans did not include any reference to Kayı descent at all, indicating that it was fabricated at a later date."

They were from a region that arabs had previously devastated and fully conquered for hundreds of years. The osmans spoke Arabic and Persian, quit lying about them speaking Turkish I already gave you proof of this. Using common logic this implies arab fathers and Persian "mothers", something that would have been happening during and after the conquest of Iran.

As for mongols, they hated islam so that completely rules out turkish even being part mongol. The only (tiny amount) mongol dna you'll find there is from the few peaceful ones from byzantine or before and more from these:

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mongol_invasions_of_Anatolia

The osmans cared about tengrism yet inflicted islam upon Europe by the sword? Please check your logic. Let's see, which tribes were spreading Islam before? Which tribes wanted to break into byzantine before? As for surnames, of course they matter, MOST surnames are proof of an ancestral line, at least those who aren't stupidly religious. I haven't seen too many albanians with Asian, Greek or Slavic surnames. Those that have them may have had an ancestor from those regions at one point, also surnames tend to change slightly when in different languages/cultures for long period of time

But I am not here to speak about that, I want you, the expert, to find which haplogroup sub clades the arabs added to Iran, Syria after 650, that sort of region.
 
Why do you keep making things up, there is zero proof that osman was turkic.

"According to Ottoman tradition, Osman I, founder of Ottoman Empire, was descended from the Kayı tribe.[1][2][3][4] This claim has, however, been called into serious question by many modern historians. The only evidence for the Ottomans' Kayı descent came from genealogies written during the fifteenth century, more than a hundred years after the life of Osman. More significantly, the earliest genealogies written by the Ottomans did not include any reference to Kayı descent at all, indicating that it was fabricated at a later date."

They were from a region that arabs had previously devastated and fully conquered for hundreds of years. The osmans spoke Arabic and Persian, quit lying about them speaking Turkish I already gave you proof of this. Using common logic this implies arab fathers and Persian "mothers", something that would have been happening during and after the conquest of Iran.

As for mongols, they hated islam so that completely rules out turkish even being part mongol. The only (tiny amount) mongol dna you'll find there is from the few peaceful ones from byzantine or before and more from these:

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mongol_invasions_of_Anatolia

The osmans cared about tengrism yet inflicted islam upon Europe by the sword? Please check your logic. Let's see, which tribes were spreading Islam before? Which tribes wanted to break into byzantine before? As for surnames, of course they matter, MOST surnames are proof of an ancestral line, at least those who aren't stupidly religious. I haven't seen too many albanians with Asian, Greek or Slavic surnames. Those that have them may have had an ancestor from those regions at one point, also surnames tend to change slightly when in different languages/cultures for long period of time

But I am not here to speak about that, I want you, the expert, to find which haplogroup sub clades the arabs added to Iran, Syria after 650, that sort of region.
You know what? Arguing with you is pointless, you are clearly far too deluded and ignorant to be reasoned with. I have been telling you facts that have been proven by every credible and reliable historian but you continue to peddle your borderline fantastical beliefs. You remind me of those extreme Serbs that like to claim that Albanians are Medieval arrivals from the Caucasus and that the Serbs are the true Illyrians, despite every single fact being against that. Anyways, carry on believing your fantasies which are based on hard study on sites like Forbears.io and Quora.
 
But I am not here to speak about that, I want you, the expert, to find which haplogroup sub clades the arabs added to Iran, Syria after 650, that sort of region.

Don't change the topic. You said J1 in Central Asia and Caucasus is from Arab Muslims. I showed you that it has been found there from 4000 years ago. What do you say now?
 
You know what? Arguing with you is pointless, you are clearly far too deluded and ignorant to be reasoned with. I have been telling you facts that have been proven by every credible and reliable historian but you continue to peddle your borderline fantastical beliefs. You remind me of those extreme Serbs that like to claim that Albanians are Medieval arrivals from the Caucasus and that the Serbs are the true Illyrians, despite every single fact being against that. Anyways, carry on believing your fantasies which are based on hard study on sites like Forbears.io and Quora.

You clearly haven't read up on Islamic conquest like every reliable historian has, you say osman was mongol when I gave you proof that credible historians disagree, they were not Kayi tribe. Since you are desperate for them to be kayi the kayi tribe was conquered by samanids (persians) which were conquered prior by abbasid caliphate (arabs) so either way the kayi were not real mongols, mongols hated islam which is why they forced the kayi tribe out of the region. Also the ummayad had already pushed into that region prior.

You are too deluded to accept what the arabs did for hundreds of years in North Africa, Spain, portugal and Middle East. Everything is right in front of you but you refuse to accept it. There is nothing fantastical about that period of time, just study it and accept the truth. The osmans were definitely a mix of arab conquered people prior as was the whole point of the Islamic conquest from the start in 640 or whatever. Anyway, here is some history you can read if you want, it's not completely reliable but nothing will be from that period

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&sou...Vaw0lNpSaLoi5Jk3AYiHi77s0&cshid=1568285785736

Serbs cannot be ilyrians when they came much after ilyrians into the region. Why do you keep bringing up albanians in every topic

Again I have to repeat myself, if you can find for me the sub clades arabs imposed into the middle east that would be great, they ruled the region for almost a thousand years
 
Don't change the topic. You said J1 in Central Asia and Caucasus is from Arab Muslims. I showed you that it has been found there from 4000 years ago. What do you say now?

That doesn't mean it wasn't arabs. They invented Islam in 600 or so but arabs would have obviously been spread out in other areas peacefully prior to that too before religion just like other people were. Are you saying all J1 and other Arab haplogroups found in those regions have been there for 4000 years or just the few you found?

The point I was making is that regions like dagestan have A LOT of J1 and are extremist muslims

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caliphate#/media/File:Map_of_expansion_of_Caliphate.svg

Does this map not cover the regions you speak of? Or how about this?

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/e/e1/Abbasids850.png/250px-Abbasids850.png

Is it a coincidence that arabs conquered sicily and it has more j1 than other parts of Italy even after their were expelled? Or let me guess, you will say that this somehow happened 18,000 years ago but they forgot they could go to other parts of italy
 
You clearly haven't read up on Islamic conquest like every reliable historian has, you say osman was mongol when I gave you proof that credible historians disagree, they were not Kayi tribe. Since you are desperate for them to be kayi the kayi tribe was conquered by samanids (persians) which were conquered prior by abbasid caliphate (arabs) so either way the kayi were not real mongols, mongols hated islam which is why they forced the kayi tribe out of the region. Also the ummayad had already pushed into that region prior.

You are too deluded to accept what the arabs did for hundreds of years in North Africa, Spain, portugal and Middle East. Everything is right in front of you but you refuse to accept it. There is nothing fantastical about that period of time, just study it and accept the truth. The osmans were definitely a mix of arab conquered people prior as was the whole point of the Islamic conquest from the start in 640 or whatever. Anyway, here is some history you can read if you want, it's not completely reliable but nothing will be from that period

https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&sou...Vaw0lNpSaLoi5Jk3AYiHi77s0&cshid=1568285785736

Serbs cannot be ilyrians when they came much after ilyrians into the region. Why do you keep bringing up albanians in every topic

Again I have to repeat myself, if you can find for me the sub clades arabs imposed into the middle east that would be great, they ruled the region for almost a thousand years
Nah I have read up on the Islamic conquest of the Middle East, North Africa and Iberia, I've just read reliable sources and not people's opinions on Quora.com. I didn't say Osman was a Mongol, I don't even know how you even got that (problems with comprehension I guess), he was a Turk (Oghuz to be more specific). The point was that the Ottomans themselves have oral tradition claiming descendance from Turkic tribes, whether or not it was true is irrelevant though it does seem likely that Ertugrul was his father. Btw the Mongols didn't hate Islam, the Mongols were highly tolerant of foreign religions which is why their empire didn't have an official religion. Most of the Mongol hordes actually converted to Islam upon the collapse of the Empire, a people that hate Islam wouldn't do that.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=YirWYMurJn4, https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8nGSwgzyiVQ I pray this helps you

Mate, nobody is denying that the Arabs did spread their influence in the areas you mentioned, I even said that they did. You're comprehension is just really bad. Your beliefs are borderline fantastical, you argue that samples dating to over 5,000 years old in the Caucasus and Central Asia are actually Arabs when in reality the early pre-Islamic Arabs weren't all that widespread or advanced and their clades have nothing to do with these ones.

Yes that's precisely it, they can't be Illyrians because they came during the Medieval. Just like how J1 in the Caucasus can't be Arab because it pre-dates them by thousands of years. You're exactly the same as those Serbs, just different delusions.

And I already told you that I'm not going to spoon feed you like a kid, if you want to know something do your own research. Just don't go searching on Quora or Forbears.io
 
That doesn't mean it wasn't arabs. They invented Islam in 600 or so but arabs would have obviously been spread out in other areas peacefully prior to that too before religion just like other people were. Are you saying all J1 and other Arab haplogroups found in those regions have been there for 4000 years or just the few you found?

The point I was making is that regions like dagestan have A LOT of J1 and are extremist muslims

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Caliphate#/media/File:Map_of_expansion_of_Caliphate.svg

Does this map not cover the regions you speak of? Or how about this?

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/e/e1/Abbasids850.png/250px-Abbasids850.png

Is it a coincidence that arabs conquered sicily and it has more j1 than other parts of Italy even after their were expelled? Or let me guess, you will say that this somehow happened 18,000 years ago but they forgot they could go to other parts of italy
The pre-Islamic Arabs weren't all that advanced or widespread, they were mainly a group of Tribes living around the areas of the Levant and Arabian peninsula. So in short they weren't present in Central Asia or the Caucasus during the Bronze Age. These J1 samples belong to clades that are unrelated to the Arab clades and are of CHG or Iranian Hunter Gatherer origin.

The J1 in Dagestan has been explained more than 3 times for you. Their J1 is of native Caucasian origin. The reason why they are extremist is because of religious and cultural influence from the Arabs. Not genetic.

You need to differentiate between subclades, you're referring to J1 as if all of it is the same. The J1 in Italy/Sicily and the Caucasus isn't the same. The J1 in Italy is mainly of Semitic origin, and so was spread by groups such as the Phoenicians, Jews and Arabs. Whilst most of the J1 in places like Anatolia and the Caucasus is local.

This tree, done by an expert on J1 and linguist from another forum, shows the links between J1 and Semitic:
kgzk3TB.jpg
 
Discussions like this always falter because people don't define their terms. It leads to "sloppy" argumentation and conclusions.

People in the Levant are not necessarily actually "Arabs" genetically. I'm thinking of people like the Druse or Christian Lebanese. Even the others may have only minor "Arab" ancestry.

Ydna is not always a good barometer for overall genetic similarity, not even when it's been completely and recently been figured out to recently found subclades.

Semites are a different story, if that's what you mean. Phoenicians, close relatives of Christian Lebanese, were Semites. They didn't have an advanced culture. It was more advanced than that of a lot of countries I could name.

We don't need any more vague and incorrect generalizations with undefined terms.
 

This thread has been viewed 21245 times.

Back
Top