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First I want to reply to obvious BS stating that "R1a might be Turkmen/Scythian/whatever" and not Slavic, while I2a Din is true proto-Slavic. It is FAR, FAR from thruth. Since 19th century Russian and Polish historians argue that Scythians were in fact Slavs. German elites back in then tried to...

Well it has to do because that is what our official history tells us: that we are descended from Elbe Slavs and it's clearly wrong. R1a is only present in our northern areas, northern Croatia (Slavonija), northern Bosnia (Posavina) and northern Serbia (Vojvodina), again I say, because Slavs only...

Let's clear out something- it is thought that Croats came from "White Croatia" because of great number of same toponyms. Czech and Polish historians like to negate existence of White Croatia. With Montenegro it is different story, our proto-homeland is thought to be northern and western Poland...

I already explained what our medieval sources say. It was easy for Goths to accept Slavic language because they saw an ally in Slavs that they could use to get rid of Byzantines. Now think about this: if we have I2a Din wouldn't it be logical that Slavs brought more R1a? Only explanation is that...

Hello, I must revive this thread because about few pages before I saw some talk about Gothic theory, and most did seem to agree that spread of I2a2 Dinaric fits perfectly in Gothic migrations, but were highly sceptical because they didn't have enough of evidence that ex-Yugoslavians are of...