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If you're so sure about this, show me your Proto-Slavic place names, personal names in Greek and Roman sources. Good luck.

Bavaria is very egalitarian? You've obviously never been to Munich. Also, the refugee situation is not the problem of Germany alone, let alone of Bavaria alone, and seceding (and building a wall around it!) is not going to solve that. Its exactly like Sparkey said, there are secessionist...

That is my point exactly though: if Florin Curta was a linguist he would realize his blunder, namely that he places his Slavic homeland into an area where we have clear evidence that the speakers of Proto-Slavic were not there. Curta goes ahead and accuses those that place the Slavic homeland...

Just because someone is a published author and has a degree in his field does not prevent anyone from publishing about shallow, poorly-supported ideas that can be readily debunked, and that does not prevent them either from clinging to the same idea for years and years on. To mention a few other...

Florin Curta is always good for a joke, now isn't he? :laughing: That is the key problem, in a nutshell even, with Florin Curta's hypothesis. Its not like we have any form of linguistic evidence from the western Balkans from the 1st through 5th centuries in terms of place names, personal...

Bavarian separatism, for the most part, is a joke. Although in all fairness, I have to say that the secessionist party of Bavaria, the Bayernpartei, received their best result since the 1960s during the most recent state election (2013), about 2.1%, which means they failed to get into the...

I have some food for thought for you: if the original PIE homeland was in the Iranian plateau, as you assert, shouldn't there be Elamite loanwords in all branches of Indo-European (and Indo-Iranic in particular, by extend)? After all, Elamites were a civilization that emerged in southern Iran -...

DejaVu, I've moved your post into the already-existing thread about the topic. As I said earlier, from a linguistic perspective the claim "Yiddish is Slavic with Iranic and Turkic influence" is quite ridiculous, especially because its just plain wrong. As an example, I have assembled a short...

:petrified: Wow. "The prevalent view claims Yiddish has a German origin, whereas the opposing view posits a Slavic origin with strong Iranian and weak Turkic substrata." I don't even know how you can even contest that Yiddish has a German origin - its completely ridiculous. Yiddish is clearly a...

The word "Berber" and the element "Brig-" name element are completely unrelated. "Berber" is not only an exonym, it is in fact derived from Greek "Barbaroi" (Βαρβαροι), while Celtic *brig- is from the root *bhr̥gh- ('high', 'exalted', 'powerful'), see also Germanic *burg-. Further, the Berber...

Welsh is actually widely spoken in Wales, and Breton used to be widely spoken in Brittany until the 20th century. ;-) But yeah, as the name implies "Proto-Celtic", just like Proto-Indo-European, Proto-Semitic or Proto-Algonquian is a reconstructed proto language. By the time that the Celtic...

Welcome to Eupedia? Your above statement ignores a key factor: the very concept of the Indo-European languages comes from linguistics in the first place, and the in combination with archaeology. If the theory was "dead" amongst the majority of researchers (who precisely?) as you loud and clear...

First, the statement that 'there are no genetics that link etruscans with anatolia' is false (by the way, I didn't say, "Lydians", I meant Lydia as a geographic sense). The papers I'm aware of, I must admit, are a bit dated: (Mitochondrial DNA Variation of Modern Tuscans Supports the Near...

Where would that even make sense? If you take Homer's and Herodotus' definitions of the term, respectively Crete and Lemnos were inhabited by "Pelasgians", by that definition, Lemnian, Minoan and Eteocretan would be all "Pelasgian" languages, and they clearly have nothing with Thracian. It also...

I wanted to comment a bit - as a concluding remark - why the discussions about "Pelasgian" do not belong here. In the linguistic sense, "Pelasgian" could be anything in ancient Greek that cannot be readily explained through a Proto-Indo-European origin. That statement is in itself fairly...

Actually, I do think the reverse is more accurate, that the Gauls called themselves "Celts" (Keltoi), while "Gauls" (Galli) was the Latin exonym. The term "Gael" is actually unrelated, it is actually a Brythonic loan into Irish, from the word for 'wild' (Welsh "gwydd", also there's a native...

As long as you insist that ancient Greek can be "magically dismantled" using Albanian (I'm using that term because it evidently has nothing to do with actual linguistics), I don't know what we have left to discuss here, because frankly, I'm not taking you serious. As long as you believe that...

As you said yourself, the Lemnos stelae is estimated to be from the 6th century BC. You're making a number of leaps there that I would say every linguist will agree are completely unfounded: first, that you ad-hoc assume the language in the Lemnos Stelae must be Albanian, second that you assume...

Well, from an archaeological perspective it can't be disputed that there was a (circa) 250-300 year period during which the Greek people were iliterate, and that the Greeks adapted their writing system from the Phoenicians (a Semitic people, who spoke a language closely related with Hebrew)...

There's a few issues I wanted to comment on here: You may be confusing Homer and Herodotus, and the Pelasgians and the Phoenicians, right there. The ancient Greeks learned the alphabet from the Phoenicians, which is something that they themselves were actually aware of. As Herodotus says in...