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Well all I know is this Southern Balkan theory answers more questions than the Steppe theory does including the Hittite language which could have originated in S.Balkans region a "Centum language".

The ANE/CHG admixture in modern Europeans are viewed as being from Steppe because they say no other population in europe had these admixtures in BA when IEs migrate to W.Europe but I am saying if you see for example Greek samples from late neolithic and BA they too have these signature ANE/CHG...

No Albania is tiny country while Tocharian is very big historical region so no connection I am afraid.

Yes Steppe people settled only Balkans at the same time as BB folks arrived to W.Europe from Balkans" Could they have been displaced by Yamnayans in the Balkans" according to my theory. We know from ancient samples that BB were not exactly the same as CWC or Yamnayans Ydna-wise so they could be...

Yet if my theory of R1b being from Southeast europe hence with(Farmer admixture+minority I.Neo) then this 20-25% steppe admixture will be lowered to around 10% because around half of ANE, CHG admixture could be from IEs only half from CWC via BB.

Yes indeed without ancient dna its just speculation using the current data so there must be more research done in this area.

These IEs could have come from 5000 BC to 3000 BC. The Yamnayans only spread R1b-Z2103 with their migrations in BA, the Steppe admixture is solely from CWC yet IEs too had some I.Neolithic admixture which is confused with the ANE admixture of Yamnayans to give Steppe ancestry higher percentages...

Yes because Southern europeans get their Yamnaya admixture from CWC only via BB+ very little Yamnaya-like admixture from IE, IMO R1b folks had the same admixture as EEF+I.Neolithic and they came not from Steppe but from Southeastern Europe(Balkans) this theory which was earlier explored by...

Yes if the migration date is in bronze age I meant.

So if your theory is correct then not only Germanics but R1b folks in general must have originated from Zagros region, Eastern Turkey. IMO with so little steppe admixture in Iberia I think R1b folks could very well be settlers from Southeastern Europe and not from Pontic steppe region(Yamnayans)...

Yet its in Persian so you need translator.

Yet I managed to find this link https://www.academia.edu/40942425/Decipherment_of_Linear_Gutian_Gothic_Formerly_known_as_Linear_Elamite_

The most exciting theory of them all! could WHG's language were IE then it spread first to Eastern Europe and then R1b tribes were IE-ized when they were living in Balkans around 5000 BC.

I thought scenarios in which IE tribes inter-marrying with farmer tribes on equal bases(ydna, mtdna equally transmitted) then one tribe gets purely accidental reproductive advantage due to many social aspects like higher social standing, hierarchy which encourages population growth as in Amish...

IE tribes who colonized W.Europe themselves were minority lineage in E.Europe so how did they manage to wipe out the local farmers to near extinction? IMHO it must have been founder effect of small tribe at the top of the power pyramid becoming dominant lineage over time instead of local farmer...

Yet worldwide it's 1 in every 201 person with this subclade.

Yet it's possible IE Italics moved in from Balkans or the Alps when Phoenicians were moving with lower intensity to Sicily etc.

We have to answer the bigger questions first like did R1b in West asia came from Balkans or Caucasus? Minoans and Hurrians case is simple EEF came from East to Balkan to make future Minoans, Etruscans or part of their ancestry at least.

This could be mix of local WHG and Steppe people but because Steppe admixture is itself very mix so the bias is in favour of local WHG component, are you getting what I am saying parts of Yamnaya's components could easily be confused with local WHG component hence give you much lesser values.

:satisfied: