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With probably less than 0,5 % of margin of error...

Nice maps. And what about Lettonian language ?

Spanish football, of course.

You didn't answer. In which extend are they so different ? How do you know ? Like Dutch language is no help for deciphering Urdu. Nevertheless, they are considered to belong to the same group : Indo-european. When you talk about the neolithic languages substratum, it is about several...

In which way Iberians should be different ? I have given you a source about "basque" toponyms in NW Spain. This source give comparisons with southern Spain too. I don't say that they are the same, but they are probably close. Same thing for the Franks in France : it is defined as the land...

You are too much obseded by the onomastics. SW France was settled by pre-indo-european peoples. You can call them as you want : Aquitanian, Basques, Iberians...It changes nothing. Maybe was there different groups among them, but it does not put off that these regions were pre-indo-european...

As I know, they used to speak an indo-european language closed to the actual northern indian dialects. Nowadays, they speak generally the language of the country where they live.

Yes, I agree : the first have a pre-indo-european origin, while the second come from the Celts.

I don't see why. Iberian was the dominant language of Iberia and SW France, that's all. Don't make me say that I have never said. Onomastic is interesting to follow culture traces or influences. But it is not suffiscient to be concluding for establishing a map of cultures. If in several...

In fact, we are more civilized. We use guillotines...

Your "strong evidences" are just "traces", nothing else. And you know it.

Compared to the density of the Celtic toponyms in Britain or Gauls (diachronically of course), and compared to the pre-indo-european toponyms, very few thing.

I have already answered you. Just stop your propaganda. The castro culture is not recognized as Celtic. http://www.oppida.org/index-en.html

It does change few things in my examples. The fact is that you can speak a language and wear a name of a different language, or live in a village which wears a name of a different language. Circular ? Just logic and academically proved. For the inscriptions, I have already answered several...

You give too much credit to the "names" or the "onomastics". Normandy is full of Scandinavian onomastics through the toponymy. English surnames are full of French roots. French surnames are fool of Frankish roots... Just because there is no other solution (for Southern Europe). If they are not...

Yes, I'm among the first to defend this idea. But strongholds are often created by warring aristocraties. So, if academic sources have clearly proved that this archaeological material does not belong to the Celts (ie they have been created by pre-indo-european aristocraties), it closes the...

@Cambria Red Look, you can think whatever you like, the large majority of Celtic experts do not hold your viewpoints. In the end, that is all that matters. Your references are a small minority with little mainstream support. Time to move on. I did not understand the rest (metaphysics ?).

It is right. I choose my picture quickly.

Nasal vowels exist in Slavic languages too (Polish and Czech I think), and in some German dialects (especially western ones). I'm not sure, but western english dialects (region of Liverpool) might have nasal vowels too. Phonetics take their root in probably in very ancient times.

No, simply because the Castro culture does not belong to the Celtic oppida area. The situation of the BI is problematic. Picts are candidates for the "non-IE languages", but it is controversial. Even the shift language in late Antic times is controversial (we know that the Saxons were probably...