Ygorcs
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Makes sense. Leaps of thousands of years and linguistics always problematic.
I asked Mycenean not Greek. but anyways. So, Hittite an isolated (Erzurum or south balkans?) and Armenian derived from Iranic IE.
Note: I still don't understand how LPIE is ascertained as "Steppe", which a large enough component of it I am sure it was, and the evolution of IE into several families and branches not have room for a Balkan IE that was similar to the Steppe IE (not time for big divergence) and most important, all 4th milenia saw movements from balkans to "steppe" and from there to balkans...
See https://r1b2westerneurope.blogs.sapo.pt/otzi-the-ie-speaker-8042
Theoretically, that Balkan IE could have existed, but it could have simply been absorbed by later IE branches well before writing arrived in that region. And of course it isn't still settled where the Anatolian IE branch came from. If it ultimately came from the Balkans, it could theoretically be either a very early (and already heavily diluted in terms of EHG) steppe-via-the-Balkans branch, or... this "Balkan IE" which you hypothesize.
As for Mycenaean vs. Greek, it doesn't matter much. Classical Greek is clearly derived from the same language as Mycenaean Greek and actually most probably its own daughter language. So the story of their origins would be exactly the same. Greek, Armenian and Indo-Iranian probably had a common immediate source, and for now I'd bet it was in the steppes - and also reasonably later than the 1st IE dispersals with Anatolian, Tocharian and very possibly other IE families that were simply not attested because their homelands lacked literacy until when it was too late.