Kurds were Proto-Greek people who adopted an Iranian language

Just compare Kurdish phonology: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kurdish_phonology to Proto-Greek phonology: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Greek_language#Phonology
Why there should be aspirated voiceless stops (pʰ, tʰ, kʰ, ...) and labiovelars (kʷ, gʷ, ...) in Kurdish phonology, whereas we know they never existed neither in Proto-Iranian, nor Indo-Iranian and even Satem languages? Of course labiovelars also existed in Hittite phonology: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hittite_phonology but what about aspirated voiceless stops?

It seems to be true to say Kurds were originally a non-Indo-European people (probably South Caucasian/Iberian) who adopted Proto-Indo-European language (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_phonology), so for example we see Proto-IE aspirated voiced stops (*bʰ, *dʰ, *gʰ) which didn't exist in their language, were changed to aspirated voiceless stops (pʰ, tʰ, kʰ), and some other sound changes which could make nothing except Proto-Greek language. Afterwards Iranian-speaking conquered Kurdish lands in Anatolia, north of Iraq/Syria and west of Iran, and these people adopted an Iranian language.

Aren't Kurds relatively recent to Turkey? They seems to have much less Anatolia_N ancestry than Turks, Armenians and even Iranian Azeris.

ratchet_fan said:

Aren't Kurds relatively recent to Turkey? They seems to have much less Anatolia_N ancestry than Turks, Armenians and even Iranian Azeris.

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This Kurdish phonology, especially about aspirated voiceless stops, that I talked about it, relate to Northern Kurdish (Kurmanji) people who mostly live in the east of Turkey, west Azerbaijan province of Iran and Armenia, I don't think that you can find a big difference between them and Turks/Armenians/Azeris who live in the same region.

Shahmiri said:

Why there should be aspirated voiceless stops (pʰ, tʰ, kʰ, ...) and labiovelars (kʷ, gʷ, ...) in Kurdish phonology, whereas we know they never existed neither in Proto-Iranian, nor Indo-Iranian and even Satem languages? Of course labiovelars also existed in Hittite phonology: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hittite_phonology but what about aspirated voiceless stops?

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Voiceless aspirated stops are a dialectal development that involves most prominently Indo-Iranian, Armenian and Germanic.
Refrain from absurd pronouncements like "we know they never existed ...", which are outrageously false.

Deird said:

Voiceless aspirated stops are a dialectal development that involves most prominently Indo-Iranian, Armenian and Germanic.
Refrain from absurd pronouncements like "we know they never existed ...", which are outrageously false.

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I meant Proto-Indo-Iranian: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Iranian_language

They certainly didn't exist in Proto-Iranian and Proto-Indo-Iranian but they already exist in some Indo-Iranian languages, like Kurdish. Armenian phonology certainly relates to the same South Caucusian sound system, I strongly believe Proto-Germanic was also not far from this region.

The fact is that ancient Greek sources also talk about Greek people in Indo-Iranian lands as late as 7th century BC and as far as Bijar area in Kurdistan province of Iran, like ancient Sparda/Sparta and its great king Dusanni: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saparda

We read about Dosanes, Dosenaus, Desanaus, Dorsanes in different ancient Greek sources, as Hercules of the east.

Stop quoting wikipedia's garbage

Shahmiri said:

I meant Proto-Indo-Iranian: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-Iranian_language
They certainly didn't exist in Proto-Iranian and Proto-Indo-Iranian but they already exist in some Indo-Iranian languages, like Kurdish. Armenian phonology certainly relates to the same South Caucusian sound system, I strongly believe Proto-Germanic was also not far from this region.

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Indo-Iranian, Germanic and Armenian certainly had voiceless aspirates.
Stop quoting wikipedia's uninformed garbage.
And whatever "you strongly believe" about Proto-Germanic without a shred of evidence is also uninformed garbage.

Deird said:

Indo-Iranian, Germanic and Armenian certainly had voiceless aspirates.
Stop quoting wikipedia's uninformed garbage.
And whatever "you strongly believe" about Proto-Germanic without a shred of evidence is also uninformed garbage.

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If you believe aspirated voiceless stops existed in Proto-Indo-Iranian then you should explain they originated from what Proto-IE sounds and they changed to what sounds in Proto-Iranian and Proto-Indian languages.
Among all Indo-European languages, just in two branches, voiceless aspirates originated from Proto-IE sounds: Proto-Greek (from voiced aspirates) and Proto-Armenian (from voiceless stops).
I didn't quote anything from Wikipedia, I just gave some links, I think you also look at references, don't you?
I'm not interested to talk about Proto-Germanic in this thread, in the last 15 years I have just worked on this language.