Ygorbr
Hi, Angela! I'm writing here for the first time, but have been reading the discussions here (and above all your posts) with interest for several months. I decided to write here now because I got really excited with the results of this study.
However, as just an amateur with an interest in history, linguistics and population genetics, I'm really in doubt about the likeliness of a scenario I've figured out here, which is the following.
Well, if: 1) the ancient Mycenaeans had 13% "steppe ancestry"; 2) they don't seem to have been established in Greece much before 2,000 BC, i.e. many centuries after the initial dispersal of Yamna-related peoples; and 3) that 13% percentage looks suspiciously low for such a stunning linguistic and cultural change (even though the Turkish precedent in Turkey is very suggestive here); then can we assume that Proto-Greek introgression possibly had a lot more impact than the EHG/"Steppe" numbers indicate, and that in fact they came directly from the mixed EEF+Steppe and a lot nearer Balkans or Carpathians?
Considering the very large populations of SE European cultures like Cucuteni-Tripolye by 4,000-3,000 BC, I wouldn't be surprised if later and probably Indo-European cultures (e.g. Cernavoda, Vucedol) nearby were only half steppe-like or even less, and certainly much less than half EHG. If that's the case, then the demographic impact of Mycenaeans could've been reasonably high, at 25%-30%.
What do you think? Your answer would be very appreciated.