R1a-CTS1211 > CTS8816 > Y2902 > YP3994 in Albania and in the Balkans

You will find a chart with R1a's main subclades per country (for Europe) on this site:

http://blog.vayda.pl/en/haplogroup-r1a-statistic-02-2018-14-new/

The data used to prepare it is supposed to come from Eupedia and FTDNA R1a Project (as of March 2018/7500 samples).
But I do not know whether it is reliable or not.
I tried to post the chart earlier, but it seems that it needs to be authorized first.

By the way, this thread's subject is R1a-CTS1211 in Albania and the Balkans.
 
Well, like I said it would be easier to understand if we had charts of all the major r1a sub clades. The slavs definitely invaded Europe and evidence suggests they were mainly i2a. Have any i2a been found in pre slav Europe yet like r1a has been found?
The j1 discussion is off topic but I will say that from the mid 600s onwards arabs invaded a lot of foreign land and changed their history forever such as their language, this wouldn't have been possible without killing off the men or making them flee in order to have the power to change the culture of the land without constant revolts, don't forget in their "religion" they were allowed multiple women so another reason for them to kill the men and take more women for themselves. Also populations were a lot smaller in this period so easier to leave a genetic mark. They did more to their east (Egypt, Tunisia, Libya, Algeria etc) but also plenty to their north (Iraq, syria, Iran, Israel, Azerbaijan, Armenia, Georgia, East half of turkey, dagestan etc). In fact there is an area in dagestan that has like 90% J1 and these are super religious even today, almost extremist. If there is proof of j1 being in the middle east in abudance or even south Europe before 650 AD then I may accept that most j1 is not from Arab expansion. So if by j1 being native anatolian are you sure you do not mean as in ancestors of post Arab invasion?
As for j2a, yes ottoman may have been some of this too due j2a being widespread in middle East and greece/Turkey at the time from the byzantine empire. But ottoman definitely weren't ethnic greeks, they were clearly angry outcasts in the middle East and for me a lot of them were descendents of former Arab conquerors in the Middle East. Imo Turkey before 650 AD would have been quite similar to Greece with slightly more east influence. A few hundred years later the east of turkey would have had some more j1 after arab input. After the ottomans had taken control I would say j1 in addition to a few other foreign clades would have been as high as 15%. Then the ottoman were taking in balkan boys and raising them in Turkey, over the next few hundred years j1 would have reduced to 10% (war deaths) with j2b, i2a, ev13, r1b increasing filling in the gaps to have the turkey you see today. J1 arabs may have migrated to Turkey over the last 50 years or so too
I see that you aren't all that familiar with these haplogroups and their histories, I would suggest that you read the Eupedia articles and get some sort of idea of these haplogroups.

There have been multiple I2a samples found in Europe that date to periods predating Slavic expansions, in fact most of the I2a samples even predate the expansion of Indo-Europeans as a whole. https://umap.openstreetmap.fr/en/map/ancient-human-dna_41837#6/51.000/2.000. The presence of I2 in Europe is older than that of R1a.

The J1 in Dagestan, or the Caucasus as a whole, has nothing to do with Arabs or any other Semitic speaking population. It is an offshoot of J-Z1842 and J-Z1828 which is a native CHG lineage, probably originating someplace around eastern Anatolia and the Caucasus during the Neolithic, Z1842 itself was found in a Kura-Araxes sample from Dagestan. J1 itself originates in the Caucasus region as suggested by the fact that the oldest sample was found in Paleolithic Georgia and J1 reaches highest diversity there. J-Z1828 was found in Bronze Age Anatolia, so J1 was definitely present in Anatolia prior to the Arabs. The J1 found in the Balkans, so far, isn't of Ottoman input. https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1j_gbbh1psWPgoR8fol-6phvBkDCUKtKeTOJAq4RH6_c/htmlview

Nobody said anything about the Ottomans being Greeks, not all J2a clades are Greek.
 
You will find a chart with R1a's main subclades per country (for Europe) on this site:

http://blog.vayda.pl/en/haplogroup-r1a-statistic-02-2018-14-new/

The data used to prepare it is supposed to come from Eupedia and FTDNA R1a Project (as of March 2018/7500 samples).
But I do not know whether it is reliable or not.
I tried to post the chart earlier, but it seems that it needs to be authorized first.

By the way, this thread's subject is R1a-CTS1211 in Albania and the Balkans.
Sorry for derailing the thread a bit
 
I see that you aren't all that familiar with these haplogroups and their histories, I would suggest that you read the Eupedia articles and get some sort of idea of these haplogroups.
There have been multiple I2a samples found in Europe that date to periods predating Slavic expansions, in fact most of the I2a samples even predate the expansion of Indo-Europeans as a whole. https://umap.openstreetmap.fr/en/map/ancient-human-dna_41837#6/51.000/2.000. The presence of I2 in Europe is older than that of R1a.
The J1 in Dagestan, or the Caucasus as a whole, has nothing to do with Arabs or any other Semitic speaking population. It is an offshoot of J-Z1842 and J-Z1828 which is a native CHG lineage, probably originating someplace around eastern Anatolia and the Caucasus during the Neolithic, Z1842 itself was found in a Kura-Araxes sample from Dagestan. J1 itself originates in the Caucasus region as suggested by the fact that the oldest sample was found in Paleolithic Georgia and J1 reaches highest diversity there. J-Z1828 was found in Bronze Age Anatolia, so J1 was definitely present in Anatolia prior to the Arabs. The J1 found in the Balkans, so far, isn't of Ottoman input. https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/1j_gbbh1psWPgoR8fol-6phvBkDCUKtKeTOJAq4RH6_c/htmlview
Nobody said anything about the Ottomans being Greeks, not all J2a clades are Greek.
Is there somewhere we can continue this discussion properly on this board?
 
Is there somewhere we can continue this discussion properly on this board?
Unfortunately I'm not aware of any threads which are really relevant to this discussion. Maybe PM or someone could open up a thread.
 
I can't see it. I don't understand how south slavs have so much more i2a than r1a yet albanians have roughly equal, some places have higher r1a than i2a whereas some places like kosova have more i2a than r1a which proves more a bit Slavic input into that particular region of albanians. Also doesn't Bulgaria have more r1a than South slavs yet much less i2a than them?
For me r1a had to have come either before the initial Slavic invasion OR after. Where did North r1a come from, which race exactly were they before the vikings took over? Or did they come after the vikings controlled that land?
i2a invaded Europe and the places where they killed off other races for i2a to become the majority are the true south Slavic nations. This doesn't mean they had to kill everyone, it just meant they needed to be the majority power just like i2a is in Serbia, Bosnia, Croatia etc. As for r1a travelling with the slavs maybe it did but long after the slavs settled in europe and assimilated r1a's around them (so the eastern European clade you're talking about), the ones they left alive. This would make r1a indo European but I don't know which race.
Another theory is that majority i2a came first to Europe during the initial Slavic invasions and then they brought r1a's along with them years later to fill up the newly won land. Maybe after this "peace" period albanians and other balkan countries were more willing to accept slavs (with the new r1a's) but I give this theory a 2/10 because the figures clearly don't add up.
As for Asian r1a it would be nice to know which countries have them most but I reckon the ottoman were mostly j1 anyway, they were continuing the Arab conquests their ancestors had started prior. And you do find a bit of j1 in balkans because of it and especially turkey where its a lot more (10%).
It would be great if someone could make charts of all the major r1a sub clades to make things a bit easier.

Ottoman Turks were not mainly J1. Where did you get that?

They have it sure. However, as far as I have seen(including the recent Macedonia study that samples over 100 Turks) they seem to belong to some variety of J2a. J1 in them is not the same as in Albanians.

Also, J1 has quiet a bit of diversity in Albanians despite how few the samples are. And some of them have huge TMRCA’s which have nothing to do recently with Ottomans.

As far as R1a/I2a, as Kelmendasi said, bottlenecks can cause the frequencies of haplogroup a to grow/decline over time. Now, of course not all R1a/I2a is from Slavs. But it all depends on the subclades.

Some r1a clades are more common than others region to region. Illyri’s clade is not really common at all. Despite its parent possibly being a Balto-Slav. It shows, like Dibra cluster, a subclade that is not common or widespread among Slavs. Think of it like a staircase with each step representing a forefather.

Some clades were more commonly participating in the Slavic migration whilst others could have sprinkled out earlier or later explaining their absence amongst a wider demographic.

The most common L1029 clade in southslavs for instance is YP417. Yet, the most common L1029 in northern Greeks is YP263. It doesn’t mean that they are separate cultures. It just means the early wave of L1029 men to Greece were predominantly YP263. Every clade represents a forefather. The more diverse clades are in a population is usually a good indication of where the line originated or moved in mass.

Of course Goths, Bastarnae, and even Antes mercenaries that protected the Danube limes for Rome all carried R1a either originally or via assimilation in their movements.

So naturally some isolated clades may exist. This doesn’t change the general origin of these lineages around Central/Eastern Europe. Also, majority of the clades are not like these isolated cases. Ergo, typical of the Slavic expansions.
 
Ottoman Turks were not mainly J1. Where did you get that?

They have it sure. However, as far as I have seen(including the recent Macedonia study that samples over 100 Turks) they seem to belong to some variety of J2a. J1 in them is not the same as in Albanians.

Also, J1 has quiet a bit of diversity in Albanians despite how few the samples are. And some of them have huge TMRCA’s which have nothing to do recently with Ottomans.

As far as R1a/I2a, as Kelmendasi said, bottlenecks can cause the frequencies of haplogroup a to grow/decline over time. Now, of course not all R1a/I2a is from Slavs. But it all depends on the subclades.

Some r1a clades are more common than others region to region. Illyri’s clade is not really common at all. Despite its parent possibly being a Balto-Slav. It shows, like Dibra cluster, a subclade that is not common or widespread among Slavs. Think of it like a staircase with each step representing a forefather.

Some clades were more commonly participating in the Slavic migration whilst others could have sprinkled out earlier or later explaining their absence amongst a wider demographic.

The most common L1029 clade in southslavs for instance is YP417. Yet, the most common L1029 in northern Greeks is YP263. It doesn’t mean that they are separate cultures. It just means the early wave of L1029 men to Greece were predominantly YP263. Every clade represents a forefather. The more diverse clades are in a population is usually a good indication of where the line originated or moved in mass.

Of course Goths, Bastarnae, and even Antes mercenaries that protected the Danube limes for Rome all carried R1a either originally or via assimilation in their movements.

So naturally some isolated clades may exist. This doesn’t change the general origin of these lineages around Central/Eastern Europe. Also, majority of the clades are not like these isolated cases. Ergo, typical of the Slavic expansions.

I think Turks were mostly J2a. South ALBANIA get lots of it.
 
I think Turks were mostly J2a. South ALBANIA get lots of it.
The majority of J2a in Southern Albania, and Albania as a whole, doesn't seem to be of Ottoman Turkish input. Most seems to be of possible Latin origin with others probably being local Balkan lineages that were carried by Illyrians and other locals, a small amount is of Greek origin as well.
 
I think Turks were mostly J2a. South ALBANIA get lots of it.
This is off topic again but ottoman (osman, uthman etc) were mostly arabs in terms of their father lines, j1 become a big group in middle East from prior arab expansion before ottoman era. Initially they were j1 + j2a + Asian r1a before they started deploying balkan men. J2a was common in Greece, Turkey and parts of Middle east so some would have been j2a too but j2a would have been in South albania from byzantine era anyway. There is no such thing as Turkish ethnicity, they were just greeks with some iranian/middle eastern input from the east and minimal turkic input. THEN they had 10% arab input.

For me most J1 in Albania, Greece, Bulgaria, serbia, Bosnia etc is from ottoman era until j1 is found in balkans before ottoman period, has it been found? Also, as for several different sub clades, how does mutation work and why does it happen?

Also arabs broke into Greece before ottoman period:

"In 904, the Arabs sacked Thessaloniki, their greatest achievement in Greece, while four years later they were defeated by Byzantine general Himerios in the Aegean.[2] Nikephoros Phokas noted in 961 the increase of Arabs in Greece."
 
This is off topic again but ottoman (osman, uthman etc) were mostly arabs in terms of their father lines, j1 become a big group in middle East from prior arab expansion before ottoman era. Initially they were j1 + j2a + Asian r1a before they started deploying balkan men. J2a was common in Greece, Turkey and parts of Middle east so some would have been j2a too but j2a would have been in South albania from byzantine era anyway. There is no such thing as Turkish ethnicity, they were just greeks with some iranian/middle eastern input from the east and minimal turkic input. THEN they had 10% arab input.

For me most J1 in Albania, Greece, Bulgaria, serbia, Bosnia etc is from ottoman era until j1 is found in balkans before ottoman period, has it been found? Also, as for several different sub clades, how does mutation work and why does it happen?

Also arabs broke into Greece before ottoman period:

"In 904, the Arabs sacked Thessaloniki, their greatest achievement in Greece, while four years later they were defeated by Byzantine general Himerios in the Aegean.[2] Nikephoros Phokas noted in 961 the increase of Arabs in Greece."
It's very clear that you don't know what you're talking about. Things have been explained to you very clearly but you choose not to understand, you can carry on typing nonsense that makes no sense whatsoever. The J1 isn't from the Ottoman era, no evidence supports that it came then. Most of it came between the Bronze Age and Roman era, with some even possibly coming in during the Neolithic or earlier (as is the case for J-Y19093). Also the Ottoman dynasty wasn't Arab but Turkic in origin.
You seem to have an obsession with linking J1 with Arabs, but you fail to understand that only 1 large clade under P58 can be linked to them, that clade is FGC11. Even some lineages under FGC11 aren't Arab but pre-Arabic, the Balkans is lacking in Arabic clades.
We have already derailed this thread enough, open up another thread if you wish to carry on discussing.
 
They have it sure. However, as far as I have seen(including the recent Macedonia study that samples over 100 Turks) they seem to belong to some variety of J2a. J1 in them is not the same as in Albanians.

Can you please post a reference of/or a link to this Macedonia Study ?
I am interested to read about it since Macedonia is the only Balkan country for which I get a percentage higher than 2% in FTDNA's YDNA Ancestral Origins (12 markers, exact match), while with 25 and 37 markers, I have just Albania but at only 0,3 % (genetic distance -1 and -4). Though I do not fully understand how significant these percentages can be.
 
Last edited:
Can someone explain to me why Bosnia has almost 3x i2a over r1a and why bulgaria has equal of both.
 
Can someone explain to me why Bosnia has almost 3x i2a over r1a and why bulgaria has equal of both.

I do not know for sure but the reasons can be multiple (genetic drift, bottlenecks, more or less succesful expansions after the 7th century). Besides, we also have to take into account that the original genetic make up of said tribes was not identical (which is also reflected by the frequencies and deep subclades present today). Besides, it is worth noting that Slavs and proto-Bulgarians were distinct tribes, although they arrived in Bulgaria almost at the same time. The initial homeland of the proto-Bulgarians was in the foothills of Pamir and Hindu Kush (Balhara for the Indians/Bactria for the Greeks), which could justify some Y DNA differences. Subsequently, they founded their European realms (i) Old Great Bulgaria between the Caucasus, the Caspian Sea and the Dnieper River, (ii) Volga-Kama Bulgaria and (iii) Danubian Bulgaria (Asparukh).

According to Primorac 2011, Bosnian males have 50 % of Hg I and 13,7 % of R1a (while in Croatia, Hg I represents 49 % of the fatherlines and Hg R1a 27 %). In summary, the authors write that:

(i) Hg I (mutation P37) is very ancient in Europe (25'000 ybp);
(ii) it expanded from a Western LGM refugium in the Balkans; and
(iii) it likely contributed to the post LGM peopling of Bosnia and Croatia.

I personally think that this reasoning is not convincing, in terms of continuity, if you look at the young age of the deep subclades present in those territories and at their limited diversity.

Croatia.jpg

Regarding R1a, the authors state that this Hg was possibly introduced in Croatia from the Northern part of Eastern Europe through the widespread of the Corded Ware cultures (3200/2300 BC) down through the more recent Slavic expansions. Finally, they conclude that R1a is the second most frequent haplogroup in the mainland and island populations, which implies that at least some of the founding ancestral groups of Croats originated from populations having possibly migrated from southern Russia 2000 ybp. As for the lower R1a frequency in Bosnia, the authors simply conclude that the Bosnian population shows a smaller portion of genes for the Ukranian refugium.

From what I see in Karachanak's study of 2013, Bulgarians have 20,2 % of I-M423, 18,1 % of E-V13 and 17,5 % of R1a (described in the supporting information as R-M17, 43 % of which being R-M458). The authors write about Bulgarian R1a that this haplogroup could be a signal of various events ranging from early post LGM expansions to more recent Slavic demography.

As I wrote earlier, it all depends from the specific subclades and their age.
 
Last edited:
R1a-CTS1211 > CTS8816 > Y2902 > YP3994 in Albania and in the Balkans

I just noticed on www.yfull.com/tree (v. 7.08) that the subclades under R-CTS8816/Y2902 have been reorganized.
As a result, R-YP3994 does not appear as basal to Y2902 anymore but in the end of the list. Has anyone an idea about the reasons for this reorganization ? What does it mean ?

These changes were all reversed in the new update (v 7.09 21.10.19).
 
Last edited:
I also noticed that the YDNA path to R-YP3994 has been updated on SNP tracker.

View attachment 11479

Of course, it is not really reliable since this simulated route is only calculated based on the geographical origins reported by the modern carriers (and not on ancient DNA) but it is funny to see that, after inclusion of my sample, the founder of R-YP3994 in the Iron Age is located a bit more in the South. He is now supposed to have dwelled by the Danube in central Hungary, at the gateway to the Balkans.
 
I also noticed that the YDNA path to R-YP3994 has been updated on SNP tracker.

View attachment 11479

Of course, it is not really reliable since this simulated route is only calculated based on the geographical origins reported by the modern carriers (and not on ancient DNA) but it is funny to see that, after inclusion of my sample, the founder of R-YP3994 in the Iron Age is located a bit more in the South. He is now supposed to have dwelled by the Danube in central Hungary, at the gateway to the Balkans.
The interpretations are still mostly retarded and to be taken with a grain of salt or to completely ignore them for a couple more years like I do until we get ancient DNA.

Just wait until they test some ancient Balkan Dna and call it's North-Eastern shift Slavic.
 
However, nothing is certain until you do a BigY test. This will help to determine if you form a cluster with the Italian, or Russian cluster, or maybe even form your own specific Albanian haplotype.

I just received my BigY results. I have 18 private variants. And I cluster with the Sicilian (he is my only BigY match and we share one variant). But it does not say anything about the TMRCA. How can I calculate it ?
 
It seems the Italian and whoever hid their results from YFull share 5 SNPs. From that, I would estimate that their lines split around 1300-1700 ybp, which points to a Late Anitiquity/Early Middle Ages expansion. This is only based on 1-2 samples, so let's see how you compare once your BigY is ready.

How to do this comparison ?
 
Should be around 1500ybp. Not sure thought what’s the case with the hidden sample, you could potentially be closer to him.

Anyway, the Sicilian looks like is with origin from the Balkans. Might be Arberesh.
 

This thread has been viewed 49340 times.

Back
Top