Anglo-saxon apartheid led to Germanic gene prevalence in Britain

Haplogroup H is central asian, but H1 and H3 (the most frequent in Europe) are european origin.

Yes, that's right. I wrote the paragraph incorrectly.
 
By the way, I am not trying to distance myself from the Spanish and the Portuguese.

That would be unnecessary anyways. These studies aren't stating that the british genetic pool is equal to iberian's or anything like that. They just state that we share a very ancient common ancestors, those who partially abandoned the iberian refuge after the last glacial period.

Greetings.
 
Dated material, just like the study that forms the basis of this thread.

R-L21 is probably the most frequent R1b1b2 subclade in all of the British Isles, including England.

So, how does one prove the L21 in England is "Anglo-Saxon" and somehow different from the L21 in Wales, Scotland, and Ireland?

:LOL:
You can't. L21 in England, which there is a lot of, is a lot like a lot of the L21 in Ireland, Scotland and Wales.
 
That would be unnecessary anyways. These studies aren't stating that the british genetic pool is equal to iberian's or anything like that. They just state that we share a very ancient common ancestors, those who partially abandoned the iberian refuge after the last glacial period.

Greetings.

How about the other common ancestors ? All Western Europeans share 4 different groups of common ancestors : Paleolithic Europeans, Neolithic Near-Eastern farmers, Bronze-Age Indo-Europeans (Celtic), and Iron-Age Germanic invaders (well invaders outside their north German/Scandinvian homeland).

The Paleolithic element, the re-expansion from the Franco-Cantabrian refuge northward (e.g. to the British Isles) is the oldest of these genealogical relations, and therefore also the dimmest, because genetic mutations have accumulated for longer since the split.

What the northern Iberians have in common with the Atlantic French, the Irish, the Welsh and to a lesser extent Highlands Scots, is a presumably high admixture of Paleolithic European and IE Celtic blood, and a relatively minor (max. 10% of Y-DNA) Near-Eastern and Germanic proportion of ancestry.
 
Here is the answer by Oppenheimer about the question of this thread :

See Anglo-Saxon ethnic cleansing?
http://www.prospectmagazine.co.uk/2006/10/mythsofbritishancestry/

He is also believes the Celts are of Southwestern europe origin, and that Britihs/Irish people are basically the same as the hunter-gatherers wave (except east parts which have much more Viking influence)
 
Here is the answer by Oppenheimer about the question of this thread :

See Anglo-Saxon ethnic cleansing?
http://www.prospectmagazine.co.uk/2006/10/mythsofbritishancestry/

He is also believes the Celts are of Southwestern europe origin, and that Britihs/Irish people are basically the same as the hunter-gatherers wave

Also, read John Koch's latest book: Tartessian: Celtic from the South-west at the Dawn of History.

Tartessian is now recognized by many historical linguists and archaeologists as the first Celtic language.
 
From Y-DNA perspective, there is new information available after Dr. Oppenheimer's book of which the NY Times article cites. Please note that we now know much better what the subclades of R-M269 are and how they are distributed.

Some of the sub-clades that are most prevalent in Iberia are not most prevalent in the British Isles. Of particular note, is R-L21+, which is very heavy in the western parts of the Isles but also strong in England. L21+ is only lightly found in Iberia, mostly on the northern edge, while L21+ appears to have a significant distribution in most of France and parts of Germany.... even in Scandinavia more than one might think.
 

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