Absolutely not. The Basques belong to quite specific subclades of R1b1b2a1, some found almost exclusively among the Basques and their neighbours.
which is exactly my point... their R1b didnot come from anyone else, cause only they have it....
my point is that this was probably very first R1b wave that settled Europe...
This strongly suggests a founder effect. My theory is that a small group of male Indo-European conquerors belonging to R1b1b2a1 lineages created an oligarchy (probably a polygamist one, as was most common in ancient times) and spread their Y-chromosomes quickly while adopting the local language of their wives and subjects.
ok, so from what population was that oligarchy if there is no similar R1b clade in anyone else...:innocent:
This graph confirms that Sardinians descend overwhelmingly from the Paleolithic and Neolithic inhabitants of Europe (over 95% of their aDNA). This was further corroborated by a
different study looking at craniofacial morphometric variations in Sardinian skeletons since the Neolithic. The dominant Y-DNA haplogroup in Sardinia is I2a1.
I have no clue how clusterisation of collected haplotypes can tell you anything about paleolithic and neolithic location of those...I suggest that Dienekes do same test for white males from areas of New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Miami, Boston, Dalas, Ontario, Vancouver... I bet clusterization will also there give some data that can appear to have meaning...
Situation is completely the same, since Europe was most likely completely populated from Iranian areas....
If conquering Indo-European men took most of the Basque women for them (+ a few Indo-European women that may have accompanied them), then they would have created a new hybrid ethnic group with female Basque lineages and male Indo-European lineages. The 20% of imbalance in favour of Basque blood is easily explained by the survival of some Basque male lineages.
sure and maybe there was guy from Sardinia who travelled a bit and stayed with Basques and thought this is cool place to live, so he stayed with them...but he kept in touch with his relatives in for example south France and Sardinia... so some more of them got married there... or I2a1 people lived there before Basques and than larger group of Basques came as first wave of R1b and joined them... or other way around small I2a1 group wondering around met large group of Basques and joined them...
what is your point with insisting that R1b took over Basques culture and genetics... it just makes no sense... since it is not really likely and it is impossible to prove set of events that you suggest...
Besides if group of R1b has taken over I2a1 community, why should you call Basques the I2a1 community... if it didnot leave major genetical impact and you just cannot know whose cultural impact is nowadays Basque language and culture...
there are other non IE R1b, so why on earth would you expect that certain genetic island of very specific R1b clade have to speak IE languages?
and furthermore why assuming that I2a1 was not speaking IE language... I haplogroup clearly came from Iran as I explained in
http://www.eupedia.com/forum/showthread.php?t=26060
as far as I see it they all did come from iran (that is from Africa but via Iran).... just first waves might have arrived before IE was spread everywhere in Iranian lands...