I'm quite new to the mtDNA "stuff" and Linguistic trying to somehow "see through". I came hear looking for answers of the relationship between (P)IE Sumerian and Raetic. I read with great interest the thread about identifying the orignal IE mtDNA and went through the different maps, but although I read it several times, I sort of can't really understand it thoroughly.)

I'm currently doing some reading in comparativ indo-european mythology. As the Author I'm reading somehow was a bit non-challant towards the Semitic influence (sorry "diffusion") and quasi-ignored the Sumerians I started reseraching about a Sumerian - (P)IE relationship which actually gave me more of a headache.....

My point is, that I find it difficult to neglect the influence of a culture that has had a major impact on Semitic cultur, that was a near neighbour to some IE. Sumerian emerged in the 4th millenium BCE (Writing started around 3200 bce). Whereas for the first IE branches to emerge (Indic, Anatolian, Greek) we have to wait until the 2nd millenium BCE, Iranian seems to have emerged in the 1st millenium. I couldn't find any year for the PIE culture only the mention of Copper Age, but the emergence of metallurgy occured first in the Fertile Crescent and spread from there (4th Millenium Mesopotamia). I think my problem is the huge influence which is given to a reconstructed PIE culture and the ignorance of the influence of a historically proven "living" culture (Sumer).

I stumbled over some interesting studies from Alfred Toth that show some connections between Sumerian, Hungarian and Raetic language (and Sumerian, Egyptian, Hebrew). But am not in a position to really judge them.

So I wondered, if actually mtDNA or Y-chromosom studies could actually give another image - falsify or verify something.

I would be glad, if someone with a greater understanding of mtDNA or yChromosoms could give me his/her ideas about this.

Thank you