Macedonians

hm
might not
might yes,

it was a culture of hg N for certain, so Uralic fits better,
Don't you think.

Besides

The resulting radiocarbon (14C) chronology for the western Siberian sites (22nd–20th centuries cal BC)
Notice the above is the max back, they centuries from Central Asia to reach West Siberia

Hettites who had simmilar are about 1600 BC

Same is the high change of Minyan (NOTICE MINYANS, Not MINOANS) control and culture
to Mycenean control and culture,
ατ 1650 when Hettites are in minor Asia, Myceneans are already here,

so you have to face the dilema,
If Myceneans are from the area, in which Hettites enter, How come they had such similarity, as pre-Hettit culture, Notice Mycenean tombs before 1650 BC, Hatussa 1600 BC. if remember correct.
then you go to the North way, from Yamnaa, to Balkans to South Greece,
there is the other entrance to Greece,
Here you have to find the old Blegen theory, the archiological connection, as described by Giannopoulos.

Why? Cause Mycenean are also the Long Corridor culture, the δρομος as called today, the Σικος and the Πτερον a structure not found in Asia till then, no matter Megalithic structures are even today magnificent.
and their Kurgan are estimated to evolve their way, while their primary earlier form
so Myceneans and kurgans already existed from 2200 BC, in co-existance with Minyans, ?
I did not remember the Archaiologist who found such in Lerna and Leykada.
besides the Mycaenean mettalurgy has nothing to do with Seima Turbino, or with Hettites mettalurgy,
Mycenean is tin vs Copper, Seima is Arsenic vs copper,
Almost same littlelittle bit earlier few centuries but mainly 1 century earlier is the Vucedol-Vatin devstation to Greece, mainly to area of proto-Greeks
the tombs of Cetina as possibly is known to you,
besides we see a strange change to tomb looking like small boxes, non Minoan, since they put them to pottery,
Anyway, it is difficult to distinguish,
but generally we see these strange,
Minyan culture, certainly autochthonus, possible G2 and other, no need to search now
Minoan culture which is J2a with no steppe
No Steppe admixture culture until 2300 BC.
Vucedol vatin culture entrance from North (para-Cetinas) possibly some Hg I
Mycenean culture which is J2a which is ave 14% simmilar even today after the Slavic invasions,

Both populations evolute to Greek till 1600 BC
The Nothern are the proto-Greek or NW dialects or Paleo-Balkan in the area where georgiev puts them
the other is Mycenean and S Greek, a substractum that creates also the inner aspirations of evolution of Greek language, to classical, while some return back due to Makedonian influence in Koine (φορθακα - Βατραχις, Φρεαρ-Βρυση)

the only entrance from East in that era, in the Mycenean world
is the Arzawwa-Asuwa when were hunted by Hettites,
so how come this steppe 14% enter to Myceneans and not to Minoans,
The answer is somewhere above,
or somewhere we can not see until today,

about R1a in balkans
Balkans have a pecculiar very high diversity of R1a,
in other contitions the numerous varities could claim as homeland of r1a Balkans
but we consider it as a sink phenomenon,
the r1a -Z93 found in Thracian tomb is at least a millenium younger,
yet this does not exclude the possibility of being far ancient to pre and proto Thracian or forms that spread from yamnaa
But most possible for me is to be Scythian from Srubnaya.

Anyway Seima Turbino was a culture of N Hg.
although their usage of chariots etc are simmilar to Mycaenean,
but not identical mettalurgy, tin vs arsenic

The time Distance from W Siberia Seima Turbino to the high transform of culture to Mycenean surely is about 4 centuries, and is allowing such aproache and possibility
Yet the other elements of myceane, as also their genetics, and the continuity of Minyans and NW Greeks hmm ... pale colour
the ave 14% steppe could enter from Arzawa, from Vucedol, even from women slaves and marriage,
if 1 out 10 male of a generation takes foreign women, it is about 5% to next male generation?, or I am wrong,
I am not certain for above but seems logicalThat is all,
suggest you see the minyan minoan mycenean pottery to understand.

Aditional if you want to search deeper,
you must search how much Altaic component have the R1a cultures from the main 3 types of R1a in Balkans,
cause in population that has 0 Altaic, it is impossible to be ancestor of a population of that was heaby in Altaic.
so if Myceneans are indead connected with R1a-Z93 of Thracian tombs in Bulgaria then this R1a-Z93 should have limited to zero Altaic component,

Until then the possibilty of Thracian and Mycenean connection via a pre Mycaene, pre Thracian population from somewhere Ukraine and generally N Pontos area is alive, but does not certified,

I hope i make my shelf understood.

to conclude
The gennetics of Mycaeneans Show rather an adaptation of Seima-Turbino mobility,
than a genetical relativity, and continuity.
and until now, this adaptation of Seima-Turbino mobility culture,
is not certified if that enter from S Caucasos before or same time with Hettites, straight from minor Asia,
or via N of Pontos areas. (today ukraine, Georgia, Abhazia etc) via the Thrace. (today Bulgaria)

a good example is Ireland,
no matter the Western country of Europe, and need 2 times to pass the sea,
Yet the Steppe and Altaic components percentages are significant, and surely describe and drive us to certain conclusions
but that does not happens in Helladic space,

Period

Conclusion

So if someone wrote in Forum about Illyria, whatever he wanted, with easy conclusions,
cause there is a late such post somewhere there
this does NOT mean is correct, but rather a biased post, possible for inner-consumption,
We are used to such 'works' of easy conclusion, for easy mass consuption,
sometimes Doctoras are giving to such works, specially to Golden boys of political parties,.
What face here by this 'work', -lets name it such- is this: How come a culture of hg N in 4 centuries pass to a culture of J2 far away, with different genetics, meaning ho Inheritage.
so a possible solution is via R1a -Z93, NOTICE A Possible
so 'OK', we found Gold' Myceneans were Siberians'' :useless: :useless: :useless:
it is typical and easy pass to ignorants, if you make amazing cover, and nice images, and say words like 'Only in'
But is rubbish

the Logic of such works, is the Bellow
Guitar is a Instrument (music)
Policeman is an instrument (of law)
so Policeman is a Guitar.

Do you understand why I wanted to stop Blevins13, before say his 'opinion' which is a work in Illyria forum, but tottaly crap.
But he insisted to spread the crap work, the logic of policeman is a Guitar.
Don't worry, such Forums exist many in Greece, and all over the world,
Using their 'proves' and Logic, I can prove you that Greeks came from Andromeda 200 000 before,
and Seima-turbino were reptilians from the warm area of planet Mars,
I warn many times the Albanians of Forum about a stupid tv-person, who can explain and prove whatever, in Top Channel,
Not to believe him.

look at him
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tpraT2zpRLQ
he can persuade you that earth is empty inside, and monsters live there, locked, waiting to come out,
He almost persuade Greeks before 1 decade that Incas were Greeks,
it is pathetic, to be easily conviced, and worst is to produce such.

How you pinpoint that Seima Turbino were haplo N people? Is there any evidence or sample from them? They might have been haplo 'R1a as well.

I don't know what's your point. Are you saying that Mycenaeans weren't IE people, but they were some Neolithic G2 haplo people?
I think that Mycenaean IE heritage is clear. Their language was IE. So were the Tracians, even if Ev13 in Tracians might have outnumbered their true original IE haplo.

We have proves from history that during the bronze age there were polities ruled by IE elites, while the common ordinary people were not IE. (Mittani, Cassites)
 
I never said Mycenaean spoke Uralic you did. I said that have nothing to do with Kurgan people because they are related to Seima - Turbino Culture, while Ancient Macedonian have a lot to do with Kurgan culture and tumulus burials not shaft graves.
Read again this info, it seems you have forgotten it.
https://www.eupedia.com/europe/Haplogroup_R1a_Y-DNA.shtml#Greek

So it seems that Macedonians had nothing to do with Mycenaean and with modern Greeks (after population exchange).


Sent from my iPhone using Eupedia Forum

No comment mr I said, I did not.
 
How you pinpoint that Seima Turbino were haplo N people? Is there any evidence or sample from them? They might have been haplo 'R1a as well.

I don't know what's your point. Are you saying that Mycenaeans weren't IE people, but they were some Neolithic G2 haplo people?
I think that Mycenaean IE heritage is clear. Their language was IE. So were the Tracians, even if Ev13 in Tracians might have outnumbered their true original IE haplo.

We have proves from history that during the bronze age there were polities ruled by IE elites, while the common ordinary people were not IE. (Mittani, Cassites)

Ydna Hg N3a1-B211

Pirro, plz don't be like the other 2 'known' guys,


here is your answer,
and plz go to that stupid of Illyria forum, and tell to stop crap, and toilet work pappers.


''
Another pattern involves the similarity in the range of hg N3a3’6, especially in the western part of Eurasia and the distribution of the Seima-Turbino trans-cultural phenomenon during the interval of 4.2–3.7 kya.51 Extending across northern Eurasia from Mongolia to the Baltic region, this phenomenon encompasses the cultures of nomadic forest and steppe societies with advanced metal-working technology.51 Taken together, these facts hint at the Seima-Turbino metalsmith-traders as the probable primary carriers of hg N3a3’6 lineages.''

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0002929716301604#bbib49
 
The consensus is that they were Greeks or para-Greeks. Mycenaeans too were technically para-Greeks, and classical Greeks would have had significant difficulties understanding them. With Macedonians the evidence suggests that Attic Greeks could in fact understand bits and pieces of vernacular Macedonian (see Curtius Rufus). It all comes down to your definition of 'Greek' I guess.

Hence, you are an English from Germany because you write in English!...

They were considered as part of Hellenic world only after the Persian Hellenic war.
Alexander I of Macedon, the philhellene.

From the time of Mardonius' conquest of Macedon, Alexander I is referred to as hyparchos by Herodotus, meaning subordinate governor. Despite his cooperation with Persia, Alexander I frequently gave supplies and advice to the Greek city states, and warned them of Mardonius' plans before the Battle of Plataea in 479 BC. For example, Alexander I warned the Greeks in Tempe to leave before the arrival of Xerxes' troops, as well as notified them of an alternate route into Thessaly through upper Macedonia. After their defeat in Plataea, the Persian army under the command of Artabazus tried to retreat all the way back to Asia Minor. Most of the 43,000 survivors were attacked and killed by the forces of Alexander at the estuary of the Strymon river. Alexander eventually regained Macedonian independence after the end of the Persian Wars.
Alexander claimed descent from Argive Greeks and Heracles. After a court of Elean hellanodikai determined his claim to be true, he was permitted to participate in the Olympic Games possibly in 504 BC, an honour reserved only for Greeks. He modelled his court after Athens and was a patron of the poets Pindar and Bacchylides, both of whom dedicated poems to Alexander. The earliest reference to an Athenian proxenos, who lived during the time of the Persian wars (c. 490 BC), is that of Alexander I. Alexander I was given the title "philhellene" (Greek: "φιλέλλην", fond of the Greeks, lover of the Greeks)

This Macedonian ruler for obvious political reasons made Macedons part of the mighty Hellenic world.
 
Hence, you are an English from Germany because you write in English!...

They were considered as part of Hellenic world only after the Persian Hellenic war.
Alexander I of Macedon, the philhellene.

From the time of Mardonius' conquest of Macedon, Alexander I is referred to as hyparchos by Herodotus, meaning subordinate governor. Despite his cooperation with Persia, Alexander I frequently gave supplies and advice to the Greek city states, and warned them of Mardonius' plans before the Battle of Plataea in 479 BC. For example, Alexander I warned the Greeks in Tempe to leave before the arrival of Xerxes' troops, as well as notified them of an alternate route into Thessaly through upper Macedonia. After their defeat in Plataea, the Persian army under the command of Artabazus tried to retreat all the way back to Asia Minor. Most of the 43,000 survivors were attacked and killed by the forces of Alexander at the estuary of the Strymon river. Alexander eventually regained Macedonian independence after the end of the Persian Wars.
Alexander claimed descent from Argive Greeks and Heracles. After a court of Elean hellanodikai determined his claim to be true, he was permitted to participate in the Olympic Games possibly in 504 BC, an honour reserved only for Greeks. He modelled his court after Athens and was a patron of the poets Pindar and Bacchylides, both of whom dedicated poems to Alexander. The earliest reference to an Athenian proxenos, who lived during the time of the Persian wars (c. 490 BC), is that of Alexander I. Alexander I was given the title "philhellene" (Greek: "φιλέλλην", fond of the Greeks, lover of the Greeks)

This Macedonian ruler for obvious political reasons made Macedons part of the mighty Hellenic world.

By whom they were considered such?

Strabo is Clear,
Many ancient are clear,
and The Persians distinguish them from Asian Greeks, from Greeks, from Sparta, But consider them as Hellenes,
Yauna Takabara,

So why Persian consider them Greeks?
 
How typical of you

9k=




Interesting the observation of yours,
But as always just the serpent spreads poison, Waiting for its ihead to be smashed,
Again scratching the sheperd's bat.


For Blevis13 the one who told us that Mycenean spoke Uralic and were hg Ydna N

How Others call the Makedonians
The era of Makedonian Kingdom before Alexandros
All minor Asia and Thrace were under Persian occupation,
Naqsh e Rostam Royal tombs of Achamenides
The Satrapies of Dareios


  1. baga \ vazraka \ Auramazdâ \ hya \ im
  2. âm \ bumâm \ adâ \ hya \ avam \ asm
  3. ânam \ adâ \ hya \ martiyam \ adâ \ h
  4. ya \ šiyâtim \ adâ \ martiyahyâ
  5. \ hya \ Dârayavaum \ xšâyathiyam \ ak
  6. unauš \ aivam \ parûvnâm \ xšâyath
  7. iyam \ aivam \ parûvnâm \ framâtâ
  8. ram \ adam \ Dârayavauš \ xšâyathiya \ va
  9. zraka \ xšâyathiya \ xšâyathiyânâm
  10. \ xšâyathiya \ dahyûnâm \ vispazanâ
  11. nâm \ xšâyathiya \ ahyâyâ \ bûmi
  12. yâ \ vazrakâyâ \ dûraiapiy \ Vištâs
  13. pahyâ \ puça \ Haxâmanišiya \ Pârsa \ P
  14. ârsahyâ \ puça \ Ariya \ Ariya \ ci
  15. ça \ thâtiy \ Dârayavauš \ xšâya
  16. thiya \ vašnâ \ Auramazdâhâ \ imâ \
  17. dahyâva \ tyâ \ adam \ agarbâyam \
  18. apataram \ hacâ \ Pârsâ \ adamšâm \
  19. patiyaxšayaiy \ manâ \ bâjim \ abara
  20. ha \ tvašâm \ hacâma \ athahya \ ava \ a
  21. kunava \ dâtam \ tya \ manâ \ avadiš \
  22. adâraiya \ Mâda \ Ûvja \ Parthava \ Harai
  23. va \ Bâxtriš \ Suguda \ Uvârazm
  24. iš \ Zraka \ Harauvatiš \ Thataguš \ Ga
  25. dâra \ Hiduš \ Sakâ \ haumavargâ \ Sa
  26. kâ \ tigraxaudâ \ Bâbiruš \ A
  27. thurâ \ Arabâya \ Mudrâya \ Armina
  28. \ Katpatuka \ Sparda \ Yauna \ Sakâ \ tyaiy \ pa
  29. radraya \Skudra \ Yaunâ \ takabarâ \ Putây
  30. â \ Kûšiyâ \ Maciyâ \ Karkâ \ thâtiy \ D

YAUNA in Greeks is Iones Ιωνες

Most of Anatolian, Arab, and generally East of Greeks, call the Greeks Yauna, Yunan, Yauva
Most West of Greece call the Greeks as Greeks,

So at Dareios Tomb are written the Satrapies he ruled,
We see 2 times the word Yauna,
1 as Yauna alone = The Ionia, The Anatolian Greek, The Greeks of minor Asia
2 as Yauna Takabara = Makedonia, The Greeks with flat hat, (shield hat) due to καυσια.

Same we found at Sussa Behistan Persepolis etc



So Blevins13,
You not of Mycenan ancestry, (neither do I),
Myceneans were not hg Ydna N, and did not spoke Uralic
and in Anatolia and generally East where you see Yauna Yavan Yunan means Greek,


THE GREEKS by their modern Persians

Yauna = Ionia (minor Asian Greeks)
Yauna Takabara (Makedonians)
Yauna Drayahya (Central Greeks)
Yauna Paradraya (N Aegean islands and Thrace, not the Thracians, Skudra)
Sparda (Sparta)


hmm
NOW I MUST THANK YOU BLEVINS13,
For giving me this fantastic IDEA, to mention, notice and post,
how the moderns of Makedonian Kingdom, Persians use to call them.


btw
I should be a healer, specialized in hazardous reptile poisons.









Bye bye Blevins13
These are not Anatolian Greeks, its Obvious what they believe.
6-e1bcb0cebfcf85cebdceafcebfcf85-1906-cf83cf84e1bdb6cf82-cf86cf85cebbceb1cebae1bdb2cf82-cf84cebfe1bfa6-cebccebfcebdceb1cf83cf84ceb7cf812.jpg


Yauna takabata, means , Greeks with hats like shields. Illyrians looked as mushrooms due to their hats. Just to mention
 
You're conflating two issues. The question whether Macedonians were Hellenes and the question whether they were Greeks in the scientific sense. The Mycenaeans weren't Hellenes but they were Greek.

Hellenes, is endonym
Greeks, is exonym
 
Doesn't the name from Macedonian Argead Dynasty Alexander I Philhellene clear some things ?
"In antiquity, the term 'philhellene' (Greek: φιλέλλην, from φίλος - philos, "dear one, friend" + Έλλην - Hellen, "Greek"[1]) was used to describe non-Greeks who were fond of Greek culture." or simply Friend of Greeks...
 
Doesn't the name from Macedonian Argead Dynasty Alexander I Philhellene clear some things ?
"In antiquity, the term 'philhellene' (Greek: φιλέλλην, from φίλος - philos, "dear one, friend" + Έλλην - Hellen, "Greek"[1]) was used to describe non-Greeks who were fond of Greek culture." or simply Friend of Greeks...


https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexander_I_of_Macedon

Notice that Alexander 1rst killed Megabazos ambassadors,
Gave his sister wife to Persians, to eumenize them,
worked as anbassador for Xerxes
But betray Persians and gives information about Mardonios,
Alexandros 1rst makes all the 'dirty work', Leonidas and Themistokles get the glory.
PhilHellen also means patriot, and is a title given by Atheneans.
his story is a stressed life of coalition or hostility with Persians.

Notice when you speak about Ancient Greeks, the status can not be compared as today modern states,
Each city was a state of its own, When Romans came, Greek states divided, some allied Rome, etc etc.
 
: "...he(Philip II) is not only no Greek, nor related to the Greeks, but not even a barbarian from any place that can be named with honour, but a pestilent knave from Macedonia, whence it was never yet possible to buy a decent slave."

Demosthenes- Third Philippic 31
 
Hahaha

Laberia strikes again

Barbaros, a greek word identified even in Linear B

means the ones who when speaks make noise,
notice the dog barks

Linear b pa-pa-ro
modern Greek pa-pa-ries paparas

you are funny
 
: "...he(Philip II) is not only no Greek, nor related to the Greeks, but not even a barbarian from any place that can be named with honour, but a pestilent knave from Macedonia, whence it was never yet possible to buy a decent slave."

Demosthenes- Third Philippic 31


I will stay at the one bold,
he is not a Greek,
BUT he is not a Barbarian also

Hahaha

good morning,
you make my day,
 
They could well be Phrygian people if foreign not Greek,there is similar tribe of Mygdones with little difference than Makedones.Either Phrygian or Thracian in origin.

In myth on the slope of mount Bermion the Phrygian king Midas garden was located,that is where Macedonian royalty will emerge,in history the region was known as Emathia,Thrace and Paeonian even in times of Xerxes when he marched trough Chalcidice to Therma.

Myths;
Mygdon of Phrygia ally of king Priam
Mygdon son of Ares eponym of Mygdones and so on.

It seems that Macedonians if Greeks were much later immigrants into the land.

The history of Macedonia may be said to begin with Amyntas' reign 540 – 498 BC . He was the first of its rulers to have diplomatic relations with other states.
The rest of the kings seem mythical about the Argead dynasty.If we are to believe this story we should accept the Argeads as later immigrants in the land.

If it was from Peloponese Argos or Argos Orestikon in upper Macedonia? Seems that in the myth they are connected to Argos in Peloponese,made up or not that is how they claimed Greek ancestry.
 
Calling Macedonian "Para-Greek" is like a french nationalist calling Italian "Para-French" and Latin "Proto-French".

Here is something from a linguist friend of mine:

For example, Thracians had the name "Diazenis", their version of the Greek "Diogenes", and we know this wasn't a loan word from Greek, but rather an inherited word from the common paleo-balkan language.

So the reconstruction of this name would be *diwo-g'enh1ēs.

*w disappears intervocally in Thracian as in Greek and Albanian;
*o becomes a in Thracian as in Albanian;
*g' becomes z in Thracian as in Albanian (this is compatible with Albanian d, which could continue *dz < *g')
Problematic is i from , as we know that in Albanian *ē > *ā > o. So albanian differs from Thracian here.

On the basis of this name we could say that a hypothetical Thracian-Albanian subgroup split from the paleo-balkan group as PIE was still .

This could be comparable with the situation in the Germanic languages (*ē > Gothic e > Late-Got. i, *ē > North-, Westgermanic *ā).

*diwo-g'enh1ēs would develop to Proto-Albanian *di(w)a-dźenēs > *djađ?nāh > *za(đ)?no > *zə?nə > Alb. Tosk *zer? / Gheg *z?n?.


The matter of the fact is that Thracian is a paleo-balkan language like Greek and Albanian meaning they both come from the same root (this is most likely theory atm). It is incorrect to call a proto langauge common to all these Proto-Greek or Proto-Albanian. If Macedonian is also part of a subgroup that split early off of the common paleo-balkan one, it is incorrect from a scientific perspective to call it a greek dialect, or para-greek.

That the macedonians became hellenized is not being contested. There were Albanian prime ministers that served the ottoman empire, it doesn't make them ethnically turkish though.
 
Calling Macedonian "Para-Greek" is like a french nationalist calling Italian "Para-French" and Latin "Proto-French".

Here is something from a linguist friend of mine:

For example, Thracians had the name "Diazenis", their version of the Greek "Diogenes", and we know this wasn't a loan word from Greek, but rather an inherited word from the common paleo-balkan language.

So the reconstruction of this name would be *diwo-g'enh1ēs.

*w disappears intervocally in Thracian as in Greek and Albanian;
*o becomes a in Thracian as in Albanian;
*g' becomes z in Thracian as in Albanian (this is compatible with Albanian d, which could continue *dz < *g')
Problematic is i from , as we know that in Albanian *ē > *ā > o. So albanian differs from Thracian here.

On the basis of this name we could say that a hypothetical Thracian-Albanian subgroup split from the paleo-balkan group as PIE was still .

This could be comparable with the situation in the Germanic languages (*ē > Gothic e > Late-Got. i, *ē > North-, Westgermanic *ā).

*diwo-g'enh1ēs would develop to Proto-Albanian *di(w)a-dźenēs > *djađ�nāh > *za(đ)�no > *zə�nə > Alb. Tosk *zer� / Gheg *z�n�.


The matter of the fact is that Thracian is a paleo-balkan language like Greek and Albanian meaning they both come from the same root (this is most likely theory atm). It is incorrect to call a proto langauge common to all these Proto-Greek or Proto-Albanian. If Macedonian is also part of a subgroup that split early off of the common paleo-balkan one, it is incorrect from a scientific perspective to call it a greek dialect, or para-greek.

That the macedonians became hellenized is not being contested. There were Albanian prime ministers that served the ottoman empire, it doesn't make them ethnically turkish though.

There is but a small likelihood that Macedonian was Para-Greek - it was most likely just Greek, hence Attic speakers could somewhat understand them. It's most parsimonious to assume they just spoke the divergent Doric of the Pella curse tablet.

This is completely unrelated to the question of their Hellenic identity. The Mycenaeans were ethnic Greeks who spoke Greek, but they weren't Hellenes and would have had extreme difficulties communicating with them.

You can substitute 'Greek' for 'X' if that offends you less. All linguists call it Greek though.
 
There is but a small likelihood that Macedonian was Para-Greek - it was most likely just Greek, hence Attic speakers could somewhat understand them. It's most parsimonious to assume they just spoke the divergent Doric of the Pella curse tablet.

This is completely unrelated to the question of their Hellenic identity. The Mycenaeans were ethnic Greeks who spoke Greek, but they weren't Hellenes and would have had extreme difficulties communicating with them.

You can substitute 'Greek' for 'X' if that offends you less. All linguists call it Greek though.

According to R.A. Crossland, the phonological features that Macedonian has would have required it to split off from the paleo-balkan branch before Mycenean even existed. That is far too distant to be called para-greek.

Likewise, the archeological reality of Macedonia is that there is no real mycenean presence, and the grave culture is illyrian and phrygian.

And the Curtius Rufus quote have a different opinion to you on. If it was just a dialect, there would be no mention of "learning" it.
D1ZBnQcWoAAIm-I.jpg:large
 
According to R.A. Crossland, the phonological features that Macedonian has would have required it to split off from the paleo-balkan branch before Mycenean even existed. That is far too distant to be called para-greek.

Likewise, the archeological reality of Macedonia is that there is no real mycenean presence, and the grave culture is illyrian and phrygian.

And the Curtius Rufus quote have a different opinion to you on. If it was just a dialect, there would be no mention of "learning" it.

That guy published before the tablets were even found...
 
That guy published before the tablets were even found...

The curse tablets prove nothing but that there were west greek speakers in the vicinity, and he explicitly mentions the Doric and Thessalian relations with Macedonians, so again, not convincing.

D1Y1YDuWwAEYT3D.jpg

D2L5f6BX0AIyIG6.jpg:large
 
The curse tablets prove nothing but that there were west greek speakers in the vicinity, and he explicitly mentions the Doric and Thessalian relations with Macedonians, so again, not convincing.

In the vicinity? Pella was the capital of Macedon.

Not one modern scholar is cited in those books.
 

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