In short the following applies: 263G 2706A 7028C 1438G 4769G 750G 8860G 15326G. I suppose this would classify as H*, since all except 2706 and 7028 deviate from CRS (and other known H mutations do not apply). But is this correct: sometimes I understand that this would actually classify as H2a2a, since it is sometimes implied that one should have the mutation to classify as H2a2a. (though this does not seem logical since one cannot have mutations from and stay the same as CRS, at the same time)

H* or H2a2a, that's the first question..?

The larger question is of course, hence the title of this thread: why so complex, why doesnot the YDNA haplogroup approach apply here?
Any proposals for a change?