who are the pommeranians?

[/SIZE] Map 1. This map introduces many inventions of name, and this article will explain the reasons. Here are some brief explanations: UINI is an invented word (from Finnic stem UI-) that can be seen to be ancestral to both "Finnic" and "Inuit". UINU is a variation that can be seen to have evolved into "Khanti", UENE can be seen to be ancestral to the Roman word for hunting people in the east Baltic Fenni, considering that the Roman F-character was really used for a sound that was more like V today. UENETI can be seen as its plural and ancestral to the same word in the southeast Baltic according to Ptolemy and others. I also show Vistula as arising from UISE-LA, another variation. Far to the west, I have written UITULA purely because Caesar describes the dominant people identifiable with the Aquitani, as Uiteriges, or Bituriges. Uiteriges, by Estonian or Finnish suggests uide riigid 'nations that float/swim'. The other naming (in white) takes directly from established words. "Brito-Belgic" of course refers to the Belgae and Britannicae of the Roman British period, and "Suevo-Aestic", combines the Suevi and Aestii larger regions as identified by Roman Tacitus and other ancient historians. Note that the intent of the map is to describe logical units based on how geography would influence interraction of boat-oriented peoples. Note to scholars: To keep the map simple, it does not include any information pertaining to land-based people other than the reindeer hunters at the top.


Sorry, but that map is, no offense, complete nonsense. Not only is the date of "circa 3000 BC" insanely early, but it appears the creator of the map has also little knowledge of linguistics. One name that overtly sparked my notice in that list was "Bituriges" which the author appears to derive from "Uitula". However, "Bituriges" clearly has a Gaulish etymology as "world kings", and cognates readily exist in other Celtic languages:

"Bitu-" (world) - compare Old Irish "Bith", Welsh "Byd", Breton "Bid"
"-riges" from "rix" (king) - compare modern Irish "Rí", Welsh "Rhi", Breton "Roue"

really? you are now mind reader and know what Tacitus meant?

Tacitus, Germania

Chapter XLVI

http://books.google.nl/books?id=VWne2bcwpZIC&dq=Tacitus Germania&pg=PA85#v=onepage&q=veneti&f=false

translates as:

ok, so he doubts where to class Veneti, Fenni and Peucini...
although Peucini (called by some Basternae) are alike to Germans in their language

this clearly means Veneti and Fenni are not alike Germans in their language

Yes, this obviously implies that the Veneti/Venedi and the Fenni didn't speak Germanic, but for one, they also lived beyond the Vistula, and secondly, there's no reason to assume that they spoke Slavic or Proto-Slavic. I am reasonably sure from their location that the Venedi, at least the Venedi adjacent to the Baltic Sea, spoke Baltic languages.
 
Yes, this obviously implies that the Veneti/Venedi and the Fenni didn't speak Germanic, but for one, they also lived beyond the Vistula, and secondly, there's no reason to assume that they spoke Slavic or Proto-Slavic. I am reasonably sure from their location that the Venedi, at least the Venedi adjacent to the Baltic Sea, spoke Baltic languages.

ok, Finnish people lived there... they should know, right?


you are linguist....

can you explain me why do Finnish use word derived from Veneti for Russians but not for Balts?

Russians - Venäläiset
Balts - Balttien
Estonians - Virolaiset
Lithuanians - Liettualaiset
Latvians - Latvialaiset
 
Russians - Venäläiset
Balts - Balttien
Estonians - Virolaiset
Lithuanians - Liettualaiset
Latvians - Latvialaiset

This is interesting... I wish we had a Finn in this forum to explain more about the ethimology.

In Lithuanian the names for the neighbouring nations can also be curious:
Polish - Lenkai
Russians - Gudai (Gudai is the older word than standard Lth. Rusai]
Germans – Vokiečiai –
Finnish - Suomiai

With Finns and Polish we got it right because Finnish call themselves Suomi, and the Polish also referred to themselves as Lechi, but with the Russians we somehow used the word Gudai derived from Goths which is not correct nowadays. There could be a misplacement occurring - for instance, Goths of Chernyakhov culture (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chernyakhov_culture of the 2th-5th century), lived southwards from Baltic tribes, whereas later those territories were occupied by Slavic peoples, but the name Goths (Gudai) was not changed...
 
interesting old map in this link, in latin

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aesti

note-
The venedi on the coast near modern danzig

also

Venetae s.Ivliae = veneti julian alps

Sarmatici montes = Carpathian mountains
maybe anyone unknown was classified sarmatian due to the Latin name of the mountain range

gythones (directly south of the venedi) are goths.

Ptolemy does mention the Prussians by name (Borusci), but also the Gythones appear at the mouth of the Vistula. These can be interpreted as Goths or the early settlements of Gdańsk might have been there under that name. There is no explicit mention of a town of Danzig and he does not give his usual list of river towns for the Vistula and eastward.
 
One crucial factor that I would like to bring up is that exonyms are much more fluid in their usage than endonyms. One example I frequently bring up is Germanic "Walha-", which is today found in "Wales", "Wallonia" and "Wallachia". Does that mean that the three are closely related and speak the same language? Obviously not.

Mirroring "Venäläiset" for Russians, the Finnish name for the Swedes is "Ruotsalainen" - does that mean that the Swedes are Russians?

The word "Venedi" (and the variations thereof) is clearly an exonym. The "Wends" of east Germany in the Medieval Ages didn't call themselves "Wends", either.
 
One crucial factor that I would like to bring up is that exonyms are much more fluid in their usage than endonyms. One example I frequently bring up is Germanic "Walha-", which is today found in "Wales", "Wallonia" and "Wallachia". Does that mean that the three are closely related and speak the same language? Obviously not.
Obviously, it was about reminders of latin speakers...
even Russian primary chronicle in fragment that I quoted above uses word Vlakh for people of Roman empire....
clearly, relation between tribal/area names is not accidental...

so, your example is heavily flawed as most of your examples are...

Mirroring "Venäläiset" for Russians, the Finnish name for the Swedes is "Ruotsalainen" - does that mean that the Swedes are Russians?
Russian name is by many considered to origin from Viking/Varangian tribe Rus (thus Swedes)

btw. I think Rus was R1a tribal name, and we know R1a people live(d) in Sweden as well...
(to compare Rassena was tribal name of R1a Etruscans... similar is tribal name of Thracians... similar tribal name Rascians was used by medieval Slavic Serbs)


in any case, again, clearly, relation between tribal names is not accidental...

thus, there must have been a reason why Finnish people use name "Venäläiset" for Russians and not for Balts... only reason that I can see is that Russians did fit to their picture of previous Veneti much more than Balts did.... but how is that possible if as you suggest Balts were (only) Veneti and thus continually in contact with Finnish people....


why is it always so hard for you to find a proper example for what you want to say?
 
Hmm... Some names are being piled too easy in the same group.

For instance "Inuit", that name has nothing to do with boats.
It's a name for the "people with dogs".
Look for "Inuk" as well.
 
That is just wrong on so many levels. You take modern-day distributions of Y-chromosomal Haplogroups and ad-hoc assign ethnic affiliations to them. What you are forgetting is this:
- that these Haplogroup maps represent the modern-day situation and some 2200 years passed since the Pommeranian Culture.
- that Haplogroups and linguistic affiliations are rather detached from each other.

And, as I have stated before, if you take a look at Ptolemy, there is absolutely no onomastic evidence that there were any Slavic peoples in Germania in the 2nd century AD. Why should there be early Slavic peoples in the area in the 5th through 2nd centuries BC, then disappear in the 1st-2nd centuries AD and then suddenly reappear in the migrations period? That makes no sense. It's far more reasonable to assume that the Slavic people just arrived with the migrations period.




Some maps, e.g. the distribution of Y- haplogroup R1a, represent not only the present situation. Considering the impact of the Indoeuropeans, the vastness of the territory, the area taken by R1a tribes since the 3rd millenium BC could have reached even further west.
Though not identical, logically it has to be taken into account that the IE´s were related to peoples like Balto-Slaves or Scyths.
Two points to emphasize about the germanic immigration to southern shores of Baltic Sea/ Vistula river:
- all of these tribes migrated from Scandinavia, in this respect: East Germanic = North Germanic. That´s why, of all the I-haplogroups mainly I1 appears in the area, as > how yes no < mentioned;
- the Jastorf culture, the first “real” germanic culture of the continental Germans (Nordic Bronze Age in my opinion does not count in this respect ) never actually got foothold in the core area of what is now Poland.
To claim that the German nation ( or part of them ) origin from there, is scientifically
untenable and can be counted among the 19th century myths.
 
Some maps, e.g. the distribution of Y- haplogroup R1a, represent not only the present situation. Considering the impact of the Indoeuropeans, the vastness of the territory, the area taken by R1a tribes since the 3rd millenium BC could have reached even further west.
Though not identical, logically it has to be taken into account that the IE´s were related to peoples like Balto-Slaves or Scyths.

This is correct, but consider that the Germanic peoples themselves are quite likely to have been - to a considerable percentage - carriers of R1a themselves, just like the Balto-Slavs and the Scythians.

Two points to emphasize about the germanic immigration to southern shores of Baltic Sea/ Vistula river:
- all of these tribes migrated from Scandinavia, in this respect: East Germanic = North Germanic. That´s why, of all the I-haplogroups mainly I1 appears in the area, as > how yes no < mentioned;

Well, and, where is the problem?

- the Jastorf culture, the first “real” germanic culture of the continental Germans (Nordic Bronze Age in my opinion does not count in this respect ) never actually got foothold in the core area of what is now Poland.

In my opinion, it verymuch stands to reason that the Jastorf Culture was only associated with what later became the West Germanic peoples.

To claim that the German nation ( or part of them ) origin from there, is scientifically
untenable and can be counted among the 19th century myths.

I NEVER claimed that the origin of the German 'nation' (nation, of all things) lay in the area of the Pommeranian Culture. :annoyed:
It was only how-yes-now who asserted I did that, whereas in reality I never did. I used the term "Germania" strictly as a geographic term, namely in the way that the geographers of Antiquity used it (that is, the lands bordered by the Rhine, Danube and Vistula, as well as the North and Baltic Seas).

Also, it doesn't change anything about the fact that there is no onomastic evidence of any sort that there were any Slavic peoples inside the area of ancient Germania. It's however clear that the southern areas (approximately from the Main river up to about the area of Silesia) were inhabited by Celtic peoples (there's town names with readily identifiably Celtic etymologies in these areas in the 2nd century AD - a time by which the Germanic tribes had actually moved as far as the Danube), and there is also some evidence that there may have been Dacian peoples living in the southeast (near the source of the Vistula), but there's no readily identifiably Slavic names. In regard for Baltic peoples, Ptolemy places them into European Sarmatia (so, basically at their later known location).

Obviously, we do not know how the situation was like in the centuries before. It's especially dicy because we have to consider that the farther we go back, the less dissimilar languages become from each other. We also do not fully know how the genesis of linguistic groups works (we actually may have a similar situation here as with the Celtic peoples!), but it's clear that the presence of the East Germanic peoples (Bastarnae, Rugians, Burgundians, Goths, Vandals, etc.) was verymuch real by the time that the Romans mention these areas.

Lastly, I'd like to mention two issues:

- There's a crucial difference between the words "Germania" and "Germany", and there's a difference between the words "Germanic" and "German".

- The East Germanic peoples obviously have scarcely little to do with the origin of the German nation. They play parts though in the histories of France (Burgundians), Spain (Visigoths) or even Tunisia (Vandals).
 
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There's a few other archaeological issues to point out, regardless of the ethnic affiliation of the Pommeranian Culture:

Let us take a look at the situation before and after the Pommeranian Culture:

- Before the Pommeranian Culture, we have the Lusatian Culture, which forms part of Urnfield and continues into the early iron age. The later part of the Lusatian Culture is simultaneous with the Celtic Hallstatt Culture, with which it also had contact. It should be noted that like the Lusatian Culture and like the eponymous Urnfield Culture, the Pommeranians did practice cremation.

- After the Pommeranian Culture, we have the Przeworsk Culture, which extends well into historically attested times and appears to be associated with East Germanic tribes.

What this means for the ethnic identity of the people of the Pommeranian Culture, I am not sure.

I know that this appears to be a sensitive topic for some people, but let me re-iterate this here: I have no 19th century German nationalist agenda what-so-ever here, I'm just presenting evidence here and trying to build up the most consistent image.
 
Taranis,
You don't need to 'report' Howyesno. That is like a little boy running for his mother. Be a man.
 
Since the pommerian tribe the rugii are gothic , is it safe to say they where also gothic mixng with suebi as you head to danish lands?

gothic language below

http://www.utexas.edu/cola/centers/lrc/eieol/gotol-1-R.html


Many Rugii had left the Baltic coast during the migration period. It is assumed that Burgundians, Goths and Gepids with parts of the Rugians left Pomerania during the late Roman Age, and that during the migration period, remnants of Rugians, Vistula Veneti, Vidivarii and other Germanic tribes remained and formed units that were later Slavicized.[9] The Vidivarii themselves are described by Jordanes in his Getica as a melting pot of tribes who in the mid-6th century lived at the lower Vistula.[10][11] Though differing from the earlier Willenberg culture, some traditions were continued.[11] One hypothesis, based on the sudden appearance of large amounts of Roman solidi and migrations of other groups after the breakdown of the Hun empire in 453, suggest a partial re-migration of earlier emigrants to their former northern homelands.[11]
[edit] Archaeological cultures

The Oxhöft culture is associated with parts of the Rugii and Lemovii.[4] The archaeological Gustow group of Western Pomerania is also associated with the Rugii.[12][13] The remains of the Rugii west of the Vidivarii, together with other Gothic, Veneti, and Gepid groups, are believed to be identical with the archaeological Debczyn group.[9]
 
Yorkie, is this all that bothered you this morning when reading all the new treads on Eupedia? :rolleyes:
Or you like Taranis, want to adopt him, and make a man out of him? :)
 
This is correct, but consider that the Germanic peoples themselves are quite likely to have been - to a considerable percentage - carriers of R1a themselves, just like the Balto-Slavs and the Scythians.



- Germanic peoples as far as they are nordics - a considerable number in North Germany, Jutland, Scandinavia - are not of IE origin. They are dolichocephalic and their Y- haplogroup is I, whereas the IE´s were more brachycephalic, with haplogroup R.
Linguist Sigmund Feist estimated around 30% of germanic words as not of IE origin.


- all of these tribes migrated from Scandinavia, in this respect: East Germanic = North Germanic. That´s why, of all the I-haplogroups mainly I1 appears in the area, as > how yes no < mentioned;

Well, and, where is the problem?
- I meant that they didn´t come from the West. Settlers from the west came not till the Middle Ages.

I know that this appears to be a sensitive topic for some people, but let me re-iterate this here: I have no 19th century German nationalist agenda what-so-ever here, I'm just presenting evidence here and trying to build up the most consistent image.


Your mails are always correct and to the point, so there is no matter of any agenda.
The theme is really a sensitive one:wary2:


- Before the Pommeranian Culture, we have the Lusatian Culture, which forms part of Urnfield and continues into the early iron age.

If one goes so far back in time, I think the importance of Unetice culture in the area of today´s Czech republic and that of the Celts or Precelts for the Lusatian culture should be emphasized.
What strikes here is that the area occupied by the Lusatian culture correspond now almost exactly to that of the western Slavs and a considerable part of the former GDR.

clip_image001.gif
Originally Posted by Dagne

According to Marija Gimbutas Pomeranians were one of the Western Baltic tribes
M. Gimbutas presented a very realistic theory of the IE expansion, she was by the way a “fierce nationalist” as I read somewhere. Anyway, the Pommeranian Group could be a zone of the Balts that became independent from the “Lusatians”.
Important fact is that there is continuity from the Lusatian culture.
 
is the term baltic-slavic a much later term and was firstly german-slavic. This would be due to the germanic tribes from the blacksea to the dnieper river
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bastarnae

The bastarnae lasted from 300BC to 200AD and where then amalgamated with the goths.

Whch brings me to this - if from mecklenburg to the vistula ( on the baltic sea ) was suebi language and from the vistula to vilma was baltic. what where these goths then.
To me these Goths occupied the pommerian lands from very early times, they then took over the venedi and aestii on the baltic sea and used the vistula delta as a starting point for there "immigration" to the black sea.
Once on the blacksea, these Goths split - the ones from old pommerian lands i.e from meckenburg to the vistula river where known as Visi and the goths from the vistula to vilma where ostro - this is stated as historical fact. With this fact we can conclude that the early venedi and aestii where baltic people who became "germanized" via the conquest of the Goths in 200AD, as well as being germanized with the southern people, the BASTARNAE.

With the fenni speaking Finnic, and the slavs being east of and southeast of these Germanic tribes, we can only conclude that the slavic language penetrated the germanic language first and later on the baltic languages.
 
- Germanic peoples as far as they are nordics - a considerable number in North Germany, Jutland, Scandinavia - are not of IE origin. They are dolichocephalic and their Y- haplogroup is I, whereas the IE´s were more brachycephalic, with haplogroup R.
Linguist Sigmund Feist estimated around 30% of germanic words as not of IE origin.

Let me address two issues here (I'll leave out the cranic shape because I cannot say anything about - I'd like to point out that it is probably not a good indicator for ethnic affiliation, however):

- Haplogroup R1a has been attested in graves of the Corded Ware Culture (Eulau, Germany, dated to circa 2600 BC) and in graves of the Urnfield Culture (Lichtenstein Cave, also Germany, dated to circa 1000 BC). The Battle Axe Culture of Scandinavia was an offshot of the Corded Ware Culture, and it stands to reason that the population of Scandinavia had a sizable share of Haplogroup R1a as well.

- Regarding Haplogroup I (or more precisely Haplogroup I1, which clearly originated in Scandinavia), it is tempting to assume that I1 is somehow associated with the aboriginal population of Scandinavia since Haplogroup I as a whole is generally held to be the sole Haplogroup to have originated in Europe. However, it is clear that it suffered a considerable bottleneck: while Haplogroup I as a whole is thought to have originated before the Last Glacial Maximum, it's subclade I1 is subclade I1 probably is only 4000-6000 years old. For all we know, Haplogroup I1 may be descended from a single male. There's also evidence of Mitochondrial DNA from the Funnelbeaker Culture, which suggests that there is apparently continuity between the Neolithic Funnelbeakers and the modern Scandinavians, at least not in direct maternal lineage.

- Regarding non-IE words in Germanic, this is broadly correct, but the number of non-IE words is probably much smaller. Sigmund Feist proposed this hypothesis in the 1930s, and many of the words Feist cited were later proven to actually have cognates in other branches of IE. While I do not know the latest on this discussion, the corpus of non-IE words in Germanic is likely to be considerably smaller.

- I meant that they didn´t come from the West. Settlers from the west came not till the Middle Ages.

No, but it's nonetheless clear that for the greater part Germanic languages were spoken on the former area of the Pommeranian Culture by the 1st and 2nd century AD, but as I'll elaborate, it's difficult to interprete this.

Your mails are always correct and to the point, so there is no matter of any agenda.
The theme is really a sensitive one:wary2:

Alright, I guess should have figured that "sensitive" bit a tad earlier.

If one goes so far back in time, I think the importance of Unetice culture in the area of today´s Czech republic and that of the Celts or Precelts for the Lusatian culture should be emphasized.

One does not have to go that far back (Unetice Culture is too early in my opinion to talk about "Proto-Celtic"). However, I did speculate before if the people of the Lusatian Culture did indeed speak some kind of - not necessarily Celtic, but definitely Centum-IE language. There is also an interest linguistic argument here: the East Germanic branch is in quite a number of ways the most abberrant branch of the Germanic family, and one must ask where these differences come from? One possibility is that the differences stem from a different, underlying previous language. It should be noted that the Lusatian Culture stood in contact also with the Celtic Hallstatt culture, and that in fact, Lusitian iron-working may have arrived from there (in my opinion, iron-working of the Balts/Slavs must have had a different origin, because the Baltic/Slavic uses a different root word for "iron", and not Celtic "Isarnos" (which is also the source of the Germanic words for iron).

- Actual Celtic name evidence extends into Silesia, approximately up to the Oder. There's also the similarity of the tribal name "Lugii" to be considered with the Pan-Celtic deity Lugus. Of course, we not know to what degree the situation corresponds actually centuries earlier - especially when and how did the East Germanic languages arrive (given the timing "Pre-East-Germanic" might be more appropriate? Also, archaeological continuity doesn't necessarily mean linguistic continuity.

What strikes here is that the area occupied by the Lusatian culture correspond now almost exactly to that of the western Slavs and a considerable part of the former GDR.

Given the considerably time in between (about a millennium), I would think this is a coincidence.

M. Gimbutas presented a very realistic theory of the IE expansion, she was by the way a “fierce nationalist” as I read somewhere. Anyway, the Pommeranian Group could be a zone of the Balts that became independent from the “Lusatians”.
Important fact is that there is continuity from the Lusatian culture.

Gimbutas produced a solid theory in regard for the origin and spread of the Indo-European languages (and it is in fact thus far the most convincing one), but given the time when she published them first (1950s), it's inevitable that refinements/modifications need to be made.
 
PHP:
[QUOTE="Taranis, post: 371766, member: 28410"]Let me address two issues here (I'll leave out the cranic shape because I cannot say anything about - I'd like to point out that it is probably not a good indicator for ethnic affiliation, however):


For affiliation perhaps not, but they can profit by better understanding their heritage.
Actually it´s genetics that really matters in these studies. Without prejudice, linguistics, hydronymy etc., have their own right; writers like Tacitus, Ptolemy, who had to rely on some information ( I don´t say they wrote second-hand ;) they did their best. But now genetics could clear up some controversial opinions.


However, I did speculate before if the people of the Lusatian Culture did indeed speak some kind of - not necessarily Celtic, but definitely Centum-IE language.


Because of the influence from the south it´s acceptable. That would mean the coming of a probably R1b people ( Illyrians? ) to the area of the Lusatian culture. Or perhaps of the often here mentioned Wenedians. The Dinaric influence is quite strong from
Romania through Slovakia to south-eastern Poland, could it be their heritage?
In the discussed area there must had been already, among others, a R1a people ( X )
from the Corded Ware culture; the I- people and the finnish population as the aborigines.
Wether the R1a people of the Lusatian culture spoke a centum language, because of the early immigration, is doubtful. There were also Balts in the area, who are clearly satem speakers.
Wheter Germanic people lived in the area of the Lusatian culture is in my opinion very doubtful. The Jastorf culture reached far eastly of Stettin but that´s a different formation. The Bastarners are ussually regarded as of thrako-illyrian origin.

There is also an interest linguistic argument here: the East Germanic branch is in quite a number of ways the most abberrant branch of the Germanic family, and one must ask where these differences come from? One possibility is that the differences stem from a different, underlying previous language.

You are probably right, I´m not a linguist to compare the North Germanic dialects with the East Germanic ones. But I suppose that the disposable texts origin from the time of the Goths and the Wandals, around 500 years later.
I think the problem of the Pommeranians can be solved more simply. To give an example: the Macedonians, who were culturally backward to the Greeks but related, got advantage over the greek states, which ended, as is known, in losing of their independence. Similar situation was with the Romans and the Etruscans.
Such combination seems frequent in other parts of the world, e.g : China and Manchuria, Japan and Korea ( maybe not the best example ), Kiewer Rus and Moscow, not to forget Prussia that became hegemon over the more developed german states.
The Lusatian culture was a loose union and it was weakened in the meantime.
 
PHP:
  The Jastorf culture reached far eastly of Stettin but that´s a different formation. The Bastarners are ussually regarded as of thrako-illyrian origin.
   
  [/QUOTE]
 
can you supply a link to this information on the bastarnaes , because all I found was that they where germanic of celtic origin
 
For affiliation perhaps not, but they can profit by better understanding their heritage.
Actually it´s genetics that really matters in these studies. Without prejudice, linguistics, hydronymy etc., have their own right; writers like Tacitus, Ptolemy, who had to rely on some information ( I don´t say they wrote second-hand ;) they did their best. But now genetics could clear up some controversial opinions.

Genetics shouldn't be overestimated either, however. People can change their languages, but they cannot change their genes.

Because of the influence from the south it´s acceptable. That would mean the coming of a probably R1b people ( Illyrians? ) to the area of the Lusatian culture. Or perhaps of the often here mentioned Wenedians. The Dinaric influence is quite strong from
Romania through Slovakia to south-eastern Poland, could it be their heritage?

Actually, there is some interesting genetic evidence at work here: many people have noted before that there is a peak of R1b-U152 in Poland, which (in the past) defied an explanation. Now, R1b-U152 is thought to be associated with the spread of the Urnfield Culture (it's spread seems to coincide well with the cummulative effects of the Urnfield, Hallstatt and La-Tene Cultures), and as I stated before, since the older part of the Lusatian Culture is basically considered part of Urnfield, that the R1b-U152 peak in Poland may originate from this time.

"Illyrian" would seem unlikely (given how evidence for the Illyrian language does in no way spread anywhere near that far north), but there is the possibility that they spoke a distinct, wholly extinct Centum-IE language that we might consider "Proto-Celtic" or "Para-Celtic" in the wider sense. But of course, this is speculation that is very hard to test.

In the discussed area there must had been already, among others, a R1a people ( X )
from the Corded Ware culture; the I- people and the finnish population as the aborigines.
Wether the R1a people of the Lusatian culture spoke a centum language, because of the early immigration, is doubtful. There were also Balts in the area, who are clearly satem speakers.

Regarding the Centum/Satem split, it is unclear where exactly the "line" between the Satem and Centum languages, but it's clear that this line must have shifted (this actually attested on the Balkans, read below). Amongst the major branches of Indo-European, Celtic, Germanic, Greek, Italic and Tocharian are all known to be Centum languages, wheras Albanian, Armenian, Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranic are all Satem. Both the Greek (via Mycenean Greek, the language used in Linear B) and Indo-Iranic (via the oldest Vedic texts) branches are attested from the 2nd millennium BC, meaning the split should have occured earlier. It should be noted that there's vocabulary which entered Balto-Slavic vocabulary which clearly Centum in origin (though *not* Germanic: I posted a thread in linguistics which shows East Germanic borrowings into Proto-Slavic), so it stands to reason in my opinion that the Centum/Satem line in the 1st millennium BC actually ran surprisingly eastwards. Just because people were predominantly (or, to a great share) R1a doesn't mean that they were Satem speakers. The (Proto-)Tocharians were certainly also predominantly R1a, but definitely spoke a Centum language.

Amongst the ancient languages of the Balkans, Illyrian is generally thought to have been a Centum language, but Dacian and Thracian in contrast are though are Satem languages (Dacian was, also, in my opinion, one of the main source languages of Albanian, which explains it's Satem nature).

Wheter Germanic people lived in the area of the Lusatian culture is in my opinion very doubtful. The Jastorf culture reached far eastly of Stettin but that´s a different formation.

Well, first off, let us get the chronology correct here: the Lusatian Culture spans the late bronze age into the early iron age. This is obviously too early to speak of "Germanic" languages, even Proto-Germanic, it is far more likely that we are talking about a Pre-Germanic language stage here (the ancestor language of Germanic before the major sound shifts).
HOWEVER, the former area of the Lusatian Culture was very clearly inhabited by Germanic peoples about 500 years later. The Przeworsk Culture, which succeeded a small part of the area formerly encompassed by the Lusatian and Pommeranian Cultures, was clearly associated with the Burgundians and the Lugians. Ptolemy very clearly places the Burgundians up to the Vistula.

The Bastarners are ussually regarded as of thrako-illyrian origin.

Regarding the Bastarnae, it's the first time I have seen anybody claim that they were "Thraco-Illyrian". There is no Thracian or Illyrian name influence that far north. Tacitus explicitly refers to them as Germanic (as opposed to the Venedi and the Fenni, which he explicitly says did not speak Germanic), though other authors refer to their language as 'similar to Celtic'.

You are probably right, I´m not a linguist to compare the North Germanic dialects with the East Germanic ones. But I suppose that the disposable texts origin from the time of the Goths and the Wandals, around 500 years later.

Well, it is possible to "time" when a certain word must have entered the vocabulary of a language, by wether it obeys to a certain sound law or not. You obviously do not know exactly when these sound shifts happened (in most cases, at least), but it's clearly possible to establish a relative order.

I think the problem of the Pommeranians can be solved more simply. To give an example: the Macedonians, who were culturally backward to the Greeks but related, got advantage over the greek states, which ended, as is known, in losing of their independence. Similar situation was with the Romans and the Etruscans.
Such combination seems frequent in other parts of the world, e.g : China and Manchuria, Japan and Korea ( maybe not the best example ), Kiewer Rus and Moscow, not to forget Prussia that became hegemon over the more developed german states.
The Lusatian culture was a loose union and it was weakened in the meantime.

I'm not sure. Be careful not to mix up the Lusatian and Pommeranian Cultures. The Pommeranian Culture is the successor to the Lusatian Culture.
 

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