I am not sure why you are bringing up Haplogroup J2 because thus far, we are lacking any ancient samples of it. If the Anatolian Hypothesis is correct, then it is pretty obvious that Haplogroup G2 must be "the" original Indo-European Y-Haplogroup: it has been consistently found in Neolithic sites in Europe and must be assumed as the dominant Y-Haplogroup of the European Neolithic. Note that this does not necessarily rule out J2 from entering Europe alongside G2 as an accessory Haplogroup, but I do not think so. Also, what do you make of Haplogroups R1a and R1b in this scenario, which both dominate Europe today? How do you explain that the linguistic landscape of Europe apparently changed so little after the Neolithic whereas the genetic landscape of Europe changed so much?
The problem I have with this "secondary wave from the steppe" model is that it's essentially just recapitulating the Kurgan Hypothesis. To me, I have to admit, this also sounds a bit like a "surrender" by the Anatolianists onto the obviously unsolvable problems associated by their hypothesis. They cannot explain how the terminology in question could have arrived from the first farmers, so they assume a secondary spread, along the lines of the Kurgan hypothesis (steppe expansion). But this occurs thousands of years later: we would expect the various branches of Indo-European to already have diversified, and we thus should see evidence of borrowing in these "steppe words" because they should not apply to some early sound laws in the respective branches.
In summary, it makes much more sense to assume that the Anatolian Hypothesis is wrong.
By the way, you might want to check out
this thread as well.
the problem of kurgans supporters is the Akkadian vocabulary that exist in IE languages
the most good example is the word Asia East germ Aus
in Akkadian we find he word assu means sping out and East
also later we find the assawa league (outer league)
from that sound Greeks name the land Asia and the east Eos
So I ask if Akkadian is older than Hettit by 1000 years, how come Akkadian had same vocabulary with IE except if IE existed at minor Asia before hettit?
that is the question where all kurgans never answer,
why even North IE have simmilar sounds in their vocabulary with Ancient Akkadians.
another question also where arsenic bronze and tin Bronze meet,
and when and where tin bronze was first done?
and my final question
what aboiut if Maykop spoke IE and was colony of Leyla teppe.
does that mean that IE were a Gedrosian and not Caucasian language?
(in that case Macciamo is right of R1b and seems R1a got IEnised)
and a question i have done in another post,
in Gibutas theory we see that IE had a tomb system from steppe
why that tomb system is only in Europe and minor Asia and not in Asia,
why steppe people in Asia leave their deads at top of the mountains like '
ice mummies'
a custom that still exist,
here are some videos
http://www.youtube.com/v/ZgHzY0sB-N4&fs=1&source=uds&autoplay=1
http://www.youtube.com/v/PO4jJMGenNo&fs=1&source=uds&autoplay=1
Zoroastrian is considered the most relative with ancient Iranian religion
the towers of silence are its cemeteries
leaving dead at top of mountains or in rocks we see in all Asia from steppe to India, so why IE if steppe bring tumulus in Europe and not in Asia?
the above we see scythians burry their dead also in top of mountains or high lands, but we do not see this in lower parallels of geographical width,
so if IE like scythians had Kurgans, why they did not transfer them when they moved to India Iran etc,
All ice maiden, ice horseman, female ice, seems to have burial system but all are milleniums older than the Kurgans in Europe, so why steppe people had kurgans in Europe and not in Asia?