ElHorsto
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- Ethnic group
- German
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- Yes
- mtDNA haplogroup
- Yes
Isn't this circular reasoning?
I hope not, let me try again below.
That Haplogroup I was probably carried by farmers, because because Atlantic_Med was weak in the Ajv samples, and that Atlantic_Med probably had a lot of Haplogroup I, because Haplogroup I was probably carried by farmers.
First, the R1b and R1a lineages are already occupied by the known IE migration theories, thus it leaves not much room for other explanations other than neolithic farmer origin of HG-I, or alternatively a hunter-gatherer origin. But the likelyhood of the hunter-gatherer explanation is being reduced for the benefit of the neolithic farmer explanation, because:
1. Atlantic_med component increase can be best explained by neolithic farmers.
If 1) is true, then we must ask, ...
2. ... whether it is possible that these farmers at the same time did not affect any Y-lineages in Scandinavia.
I would find the probability of 2) somewhat small. That means, at least one of the few current R1b/R1a/I1/I2 lineages probably belonged to farmers. Since R1b and R1a are certainly a different story, only I1 or I2 are likely (not proven!) candidates.
Let's see... modern Scandinavians have about a 5:3 ratio of Northern_European to Atlantic_Med. Ajv had more Atlantic_Med than Gok4 had Northern_European. So in my judgment,
unless the group that introduced the Gedrosian component to modern Scandinavians had a significant impact on that ratio (which probably happened,
but which way?),
In a way that does not increase the Atlantic_med component. That's because in my opinion IE theories suggest other than Atlantic_med influence, probably North_european + Gedrosia/Caucasus. Therefore I can imagine the farmers only to be most likely (not proven of course!) responsible ones for having increased the Atlantic_med component in today Scandinavia, compared to Ajv. However I admit, that Ajv samples already had a little trace of Atlantic_med.
modern Scandinavians are about twice as much descended from Ajv types as Gok4 types. Yet Scandinavians are at least 1/3 I1... more than we would expect from I1 corresponding to Atlantic_Med, unless we don't think that any other haplogroups made up Atlantic_Med.
I actually lean towards simply throwing out modern Y-haplogroup frequencies as indicators of which haplogroup arrays used to correspond to these components, in this case. It's likely that modern I1 is a more recent expansion than when some of these components were introduced to the Scandinavian population. So its frequency in modern Scandinavians is unlikely to tell us anything.
Of course modern HG-frequencies are not reliable at all, especially not in the sparsely populated north. But that's not what I was using for reasoning, but rather the entire absence or presence of a Y-HG.