Proto-Greek

[Zeus10]

So Romans never knew Greeks nor Hellenes? I lack classical latin History to answer this question already answered by serious historians... they knew only an indetermined population in S-E Europe that, spite being under Roma's foot, keep scrupulously speaking a religious language come from ??? a previous I-E religious jargon??? forged when??? upon what???
very good trick, the vainquished population give its language to the rulers elite, this elite that spent its time to change the name of greek gods? and by spirit of contradiction took after christianity (from Greeks?) and then reverse to latin language? or there was nothing as greek gods and Romans forged greek names for their own gods???
for the few I know the religious languages are former ethnic languages that take a "frozen" form and as a whole never survive among the people: look at semitic hebraic that was abandoned by Jews before being artificially took again (very rare occurrence in History), look at church latin, "frozen" form of late latin, that was abandoned too, finally... look at sanskrit that never become a vernacular: religious frozen stantardized languages need vulgar language, first, not the contrary
I think this at first intersting thread is coming to give me headache! I go to bed!
don't do nighmares!

Romans elite, in a very heterogeneous city population, were the real Romans and they were exellent Greek speakers on the first place. The city itself as Juvenal’s Umbricius refers Rome in his work Satire III :

… Non possum ferre, Quirites,
Graecam urbem. Quamvis quota portio faecis Achaei?
Iam pridem Syrus in Tiberim defluxit Orontes
et linguam et mores et cum tibicine chordas
obliquas nec non gentilia tympana secum
vexit et ad circum iussas prostare puellas

a Greek City, but to my understanding not in ethnical perspective, but in the cultural one. It was exactly these Romans who inscribed the ""Greek"" all over Mediteranean, Egypt and Middle East. Sometimes we find these inscriptions in both Roman's languages, mostly following these order : Greek first, Latin below:

[ἡ σύ]νκλητος καὶ ὁ δῆμος

Γάϊον Ἰούλιον Γαΐου υἱὸν Νάσωνα

ἀρετῆς καὶ εὐεργεσίας ἕνεκα.



senatus ∙ et ∙ populus ∙ Veliensis

C(aio) ∙ Iulio ∙ C(ai) ∙ f(ilio) ∙ Nasoni ∙ honoris

et ∙ virtutis ∙ causa.

 

[Taranis]

I agree to Anatoly Fomenko, who argues that the conventional chronology is fundamentally flawed. Also I agree that the events attributed to antiquity actually occurred during the Middle Ages, but I can not decide the length of time that these events really occured after. To reach a definite conclusion you must be an expert in archicecture, linguistics, archeology and historiography at the same time, which I am not, but obviously I have noticed a huge discrapency betwen conventional history and real events. One thing I know for sure, is that the history of the human race , is not the one of the "ethne-s", but that of the religion and rulers, and in this regard to talk about especially proto-Greek and proto-Latin, is senseless.

I think both Fomenko's and Illig's ideas should be dismissed as pseudoscientific nonsense and charlatanry - and also, that should be obvious. Why? Because they are both surprisingly Eurocentric in their accounts of history (in the case of Fomenko, with the clear anti-western message in his work, this is of course quite ironic), because they assert that all historiography is the product of a European-based forgery, and they appear to be either ignorant or unaware of historic accounts from non-Western sources that - who'd knew - actually back up the "official" history that they seek to oppose.

So, let me ask you this now: what incentive should the Arabs, the Persians, the Indians and the Chinese have to be cooperating over centuries on the same, massive conspiracy as "the Church" (also, which church?)?

 

[Zeus10]

I think both Fomenko's and Illig's ideas should be dismissed as pseudoscientific nonsense and charlatanry - and also, that should be obvious. Why? Because they are both surprisingly Eurocentric in their accounts of history (in the case of Fomenko, with the clear anti-western message in his work, this is of course quite ironic), because they assert that all historiography is the product of a European-based forgery, and they appear to be either ignorant or unaware of historic accounts from non-Western sources that - who'd knew - actually back up the "official" history that they seek to oppose.

I understand anti-European Fomenko's sentiment, but this is not a very good reason to dissmiss his entire work, especially for the fact that he has used very reliable statistical methods.

So, let me ask you this now: what incentive should the Arabs, the Persians, the Indians and the Chinese have to be cooperating over centuries on the same, massive conspiracy as "the Church" (also, which church?)?

We should base our understanding about history on the specific circumstances each particular history has been driven by. Drawing parallels modelling into the same some very different historical reallities might be one way of thinking, but shouldn't be our conclusive methodology to lead our reasoning to understand the past.

 

[Yetos]

Romans elite, in a very heterogeneous city population, were the real Romans and they were exellent Greek speakers on the first place. The city itself as Juvenal’s Umbricius refers Rome in his work Satire III :



a Greek City, but to my understanding not in ethnical perspective, but in the cultural one. It was exactly these Romans who inscribed the ""Greek"" all over Mediteranean, Egypt and Middle East. Sometimes we find these inscriptions in both Roman's languages, mostly following these order : Greek first, Latin below:

[ἡ σύ]νκλητος καὶ ὁ δῆμος

Γάϊον Ἰούλιον Γαΐου υἱὸν Νάσωνα

ἀρετῆς καὶ εὐεργεσίας ἕνεκα.



senatus ∙ et ∙ populus ∙ Veliensis

C(aio) ∙ Iulio ∙ C(ai) ∙ f(ilio) ∙ Nasoni ∙ honoris

et ∙ virtutis ∙ causa.

That is the Point,
Greek that time was just English today,
a global language, spoken by Greeks and non Greeks,
if I study today English literature am I british? No,
But answer me, How English is so expand today world wide? is it a church language?
answer is no, but due to colonisation, merchants, alphabet and written speech etc,
so how come Greek was so wide that time?
did church (which God?) force them to Learn Greek?
I am Greek, I also speak some English
did today Church force me to learn English?

the biggest nation today are Chinese, but world's most wide spoken language is English.
DO PEOPLE LEARN ENGLISH TODAY CAUSE OF RELIGION TO AGGLOSAXONIC CHURCH?

and a final question,
ok if Greek was a religious language, what language Myceneans spoke?
and what was the 'mother' language Homer and Hesiod?

have any answer to that?

what I am asking is if you are right, what was the mother language of ancient Greeks,
and why they did not use it, instead they learn a clergy language to express.
Romans took the Alphabet from Cyme to express written speech, could Greeks do the same, and learn all a clergy language?

 

[Taranis]

I understand anti-European Fomenko's sentiment, but this is not a very good reason to dissmiss his entire work, especially for the fact that he has used very reliable statistical methods.

You're missing my point entirely there: the underlying common assumption (by Illig, by Fomenko, and by you, since you claimed the same) is that "official" history was tampered with by a conspiracy. This assumption is highly Eurocentric because it sees the conspiracy originating in the West. As it happens, the historiography of non-western sources agrees with that of the "official" western history: for example, what incentive would Persian and Arab scholars have - centuries before the Renaissance - to write treatise on the classical Greek philosophers if the works of exactly those philosophers are the product of a forgery of the Renaissance? What incentive would the Mauryans in India to translate their texts into Greek - centuries before the emergence of Christianity - if this was a "Church language", and if Alexander the Great never spoke Greek, as you asserted earlier in this thread? If you move the magnitude of your 'conspiracy' to a level where it clearly spans multiple centuries and transcends the boundaries of religions and entire civilizations thousands of kilometers apart, the probability that your "theory" is complete nonsense, and that "official" history in turn actually turns out o be quite accurate, approaches 100%.

The fact that Fomenko has such a flowery anti-western sentiment in his "revised" history is a mere foot note in this discussion.

 

[Zeus10]

That is the Point,
Greek that time was just English today,
a global language, spoken by Greeks and non Greeks,
if I study today English literature am I british? No,
But answer me, How English is so expand today world wide? is it a church language?
answer is no, but due to colonisation, merchants, alphabet and written speech etc,
so how come Greek was so wide that time?
did church (which God?) force them to Learn Greek?
I am Greek, I also speak some English
did today Church force me to learn English?

the biggest nation today are Chinese, but world's most wide spoken language is English.
DO PEOPLE LEARN ENGLISH TODAY CAUSE OF RELIGION TO AGGLOSAXONIC CHURCH?

There is a huge difference betwen the usage of "Greek" in the past and English today. English came in usage through invasion and colonisation of many countries and places and especially it started its appearance after the creation of the English state-nation, which can not be applied for the antiquity. "Greeks" whatever it meant in the past, not only never invaded someone, but they were the invaded ones, EXCACTLY by these Romans, to that extend that they fade out from the scene of the history thereafter, if they ever existed on the first place as a 'ethne' in the way we determine a "ethne" today..

and a final question,
ok if Greek was a religious language, what language Myceneans spoke?
and what was the 'mother' language Homer and Hesiod?

have any answer to that?

I have no answer about this. If you are "refering" to Ventris ""decipherement"" of Linear B, I have full confidence he was wrong, or at least his conclusion was far-fetched, but if I had to give an "educated guess", I would say they were a culture similar to Asian one, based on archeological findings in that area.

 

[Zeus10]

You're missing my point entirely there: the underlying common assumption (by Illig, by Fomenko, and by you, since you claimed the same) is that "official" history was tampered with by a conspiracy. This assumption is highly Eurocentric because it sees the conspiracy originating in the West. As it happens, the historiography of non-western sources agrees with that of the "official" western history: for example, what incentive would Persian and Arab scholars have - centuries before the Renaissance - to write treatise on the classical Greek philosophers if the works of exactly those philosophers are the product of a forgery of the Renaissance? What incentive would the Mauryans in India to translate their texts into Greek - centuries before the emergence of Christianity - if this was a "Church language", and if Alexander the Great never spoke Greek, as you asserted earlier in this thread? If you move the magnitude of your 'conspiracy' to a level where it clearly spans multiple centuries and transcends the boundaries of religions and entire civilizations thousands of kilometers apart, the probability that your "theory" is complete nonsense, and that "official" history in turn actually turns out o be quite accurate, approaches 100%.

The fact that Fomenko has such a flowery anti-western sentiment in his "revised" history is a mere foot note in this discussion.

First, I want to remind you that I don't entirely dissmis the events on themselves, but the time they are "recorded" they occured.
Secondly, I opposse the mainstream perception, which look at the Ancient Cultures, like Greeks or Romans as we do today for the nation-states.
Thirdly, I would like to see few examples from the non-western sources, where they back-up the conventional western 'stories' of the antiquity, especially in regards how do they determine the excact time these "events" really occured.

 

[Yetos]

There is a huge difference betwen the usage of "Greek" in the past and English today. English came in usage through invasion and colonisation of many countries and places and especially it started its appearance after the creation of the English state-nation, which can not be applied for the antiquity. "Greeks" whatever it meant in the past, not only never invaded someone, but they were the invaded ones, EXCACTLY by these Romans, to that extend that they fade out from the scene of the history thereafter, if they ever existed on the first place as a 'ethne' in the way we determine a "ethne" today..



I have no answer about this. If you are "refering" to Ventris ""decipherement"" of Linear B, I have full confidence he was wrong, or at least his conclusion was far-fetched, but if I had to give an "educated guess", I would say they were a culture similar to Asian one, based on archeological findings in that area.

SO that means that deny Troyan war, Greek colonisation 1, Greek colonisation 2, Persian wars, Alexander and Pyrros?
I guess Myceneans invaded Myceane from Troy, Emporium in Spain was Built by Asians as also Phasis in caucas, and Alexander was a Persian who invated Makedonia, and Pyrros was a Roman who lost his army in effort to conquer Greece, right?

is that you are telling me?

Question to explain us more and develop your 'theory'
1.
Ομαιμον ομογλωττον ομοθρησκον κανων kanon was written by who?
2. ok ancient Greeks never existed, DO MODERN GREEKS EXIST AS AN ETHNOS WITHE TODAY DETERMINATION?

I think you just spamming something in purpose with no Idea how it was, you deny but you have nothing to show us instead, deny for deny, I wonder why?
I gave you a step to explain your theory and tell us nothing,
no proves, no opponent side, nothing just spam of your deny,

If you have something to tell us ok,
if your purpose is to deny they why you mixed in aforum like that, to tell us that we are the idiots and your deny is like Divine light a Holy Ghost? but to where? explain more your theory,
what are you afraid?
ok show us the non clergy language that existed at homer's time.


so lets take a look at that you call Asian

Mycenean

Thracian

Do you believe that Both Thracian and Mycenean were Asians?
If yes then you just supported a theory that IE came from Anatolia much after the arsenic bronze.

do you know that Syrmia and Vatin Cultures are connected with Mycenean and Minoan?
not me archaiologists say so.


So Greeks never colonise and never expand in Asia Africa,
and Greeks spoke an Asian language is your theory,
and they learn a clergy language with out following that God (Taranis Thor Perun) so to do what?
Homer spoke an unknown Asian language learn so perfect the Greek, one the most difficult and rich in vocabulary and forms, Forced by Church and Clergy, just to write his poems? and people who spoke an Asian language kept them as save as they could, telling their children every night a story in a language that they did not understand? is that you are telling us?


Is that you are saying us?
Alexander spoke an Asian unknown language but spread Greek to India due to a clergy demand?
is that you are telling us?

and again I ask you, If ancient Greeks were not an Ethicity what where they?
to which nation were Relatives?

are modern Greeks an Ethnicity?

Ethnos ΕΘΝΟΣ is a greek word and means cousins,
ΕΔΝΟΣ = cousin
-ΙΔΗΣ = tribe-family name
Germans is Germanoi poss case Germanidon Female Germanides
EDI is the relative in Thracian

Do you understand that automatically you kick Vocedol Vatin Thracians to an Asian culture?
do you realize that automatically you speak that IE came from minor Asia to balkans?


if you know Greek-Roman wars then you understand why,
they start from South Italy and did not finish even after Mithridateian wars,
Cleopatra was Egypt's Queen but was a Greek speaker,
if you search History of sil road you will see that some Greek cities never passed under Roman control East of Parthia,
what was easier for Romans? to write Latin and in language that existed and spoken and find them an alphabet like Cyrill and Method? or to leave Greek as primary,
understand that known world spoke Greek that time as second language,
It was more easier Roman officers to learn Greek, cause from Spain to India some locals knew that language for centuries or milleniums, than to force local population learn Latin
Alaska belongs to USA but still Russian are spoken there,
in British colonies after 1948 the English speaking people are more today than were under English occupation, cause that time English was the language of the 'foreign intruder', you did not the language of the enemy, that is why Romans adopted Greek as international language,
even Islam did not manage to rip Greek language from Midle East were no Latin was Spoken, until the crusades.

 

[Yetos]

sorry mistake, repeat previous post.

 

[Yetos]

The above is written in Rome Senator cause Greek and Latin was a Clergy, a religion language, you say to us,

No matter I want to stay serious I can't

Here is another photo at 2002 AD before 10 years which might have connections showing to you that Greek and Latin is a clergy language,

if you see each has at bottom left corner the
Latin EURO
Greek ΕΥΡΩ

I quess that was made under kindly permission, supervision and pressure of Romaiocatholic Pope of Rome, and Orthodox Patriarch of Con/polis
well seems like even today 2002 AD Greek and Latin are Clergy language, as I see in the photo of Euro-bill

I wonder if European Central Bank ask a permission from both their Holliness to use that logo.

that is written in Euro-bill to force Europeans to learn Latin ang Greek right,
as in case of Greece, they spoke Asian but they learn a clergy language, as you told us.
so after that evidence we know that the purpose of church and the words Euro and Ευρω are just to force or help people learn Latin and ancient Greek.
Yes church knows what is doing, and has a conspiracy to learn all Europeans, Ancient Greek, and Latin
it is written in the Euro-bill.
so church for 5 000 years is trying to learn Europeans Greek and Latin language,
milleniums of conspiracy, no matter church change God's, Kronos Zeus Ianus Thor Taranis Perun Astarte etc to Jesus Christ and Allah, the purpose was the same 5000 years, to teach ancient Greek to people who do not speak ancient Greek, not to teach divine laws, but to teach a language,
am I correct? Church even invade Persia and Sogdiane to teach Greek language, not Alexander but clerics.
I am etrified:.
Beware learn Greek to save your shelves from Antichrist.
the fires of Hell awaits those who did not speak Greek.
Gods understand only Greek and Latin, so speak Greek when you pray, help God understand you.

 

[Zeus10]

Yetos, I really don't like to repeat myself.
Yes, Greek started as a religious language for liturgy and religious writing needs. It was used thereafter as a language of culture, diplomacy and trade, rhetorics and oratory, administrative and civil servants. It gradualy expanded mainly through education firstly to the educated people and then to the common ones, but it never had a status of an ethnic language, before the creation of the Greek nation-state. Today being used in the everyday life, is evolving to that degree that is showing itself nowhere alike in any perspective to the so called "Attic" language, which was labeled as Ancient Greek language.

 

[Yetos]

Yetos, I really don't like to repeat myself.
Yes, Greek started as a religious language for liturgy and religious writing needs. It was used thereafter as a language of culture, diplomacy and trade, rhetorics and oratory, administrative and civil servants. It gradualy expanded mainly through education firstly to the educated people and then to the common ones, but it never had a status of an ethnic language, before the creation of the Greek nation-state. Today being used in the everyday life, is evolving to that degree that is showing itself nowhere alike in any perspective to the so called "Attic" language, which was labeled as Ancient Greek language.

Zeus I am tired of bad written fairy tales,

and I say Yes to you,

Greek and latin still are clergy words,


EURO
ΕΥΡΩ


AS I SEE AGAIN ZEUS YOU TOLD US THAT GODS ARE BILINGUAL, AGAIN AND AGAIN

no more comment,

deny for deny with out a thesis is just spam.
you may deny what ever uou want, who cares,

Religions are made by people so they carry the language of the firstmakers,
YOU JUST PROVE TO YOUR SHELF THAT ONCE UPON A TIME GREEK WERE SPOKEN,

besides you said that Myceneans spoke an Asian language, and i just pass it


YES ZEUS10 MYCENEANS SPOKE AN ASIAN LANGUAGE, A LANGUAGE CALLED AS PROTO_GREEK THAT CAME FROM ASIA, A CLEAR ASIAN INDO_EUROPEAN LANGUAGE, either from steppe, either from minor Asia GEEK IS AN ASIAN LANGUAGE AS ALL IE LANGUAGES,
you just admited your shelf that Greeks spoke that language,
Clergy or not, That language was spoken all over the knpown world, due to colonisations and emporion,
the rest is for you,
don't deny your shelf one day,

for 3 days I see that you tell us nothing you just spam as a well trained propaganda agent so to have us brain wash.
the answers are given tou you,

the rest is just spam, and I will make fun of it,
haven't you something better to do, than the parriot?

PS
accept it, Albanian is also Asian language

 

[Zeus10]

Zeus I am tired of bad written fairy tales,

and I say Yes to you,



Greek and latin still are clergy words,


EURO
ΕΥΡΩ


AS I SEE AGAIN ZEUS YOU TOLD US THAT GODS ARE BILINGUAL, AGAIN AND AGAIN

no more comment,

No Yetos, "Ancient" Romans were bilingual:

and this is so true that made Juvenal in his Satire VI (184-188, 191-196)
reiterates his indignation against Roman women who prefer the usage of Greek over Latin:

Nam quid rancidius, quam quod se non putat ulla
formosam nisi quae de Tusca Graecula facta est,
de Sulmonensi mera Cecropis? Omnia Graece,
cum sit turpe magis nostris nescire Latine....
Quotiens lasciuum interuenit illud
ζωὴ καὶ ψυχή, modo sub lodice relictis
uteris in turba .

and this was happening in the Western Rome(not the Eastern one-Constantinople) , whose catacombs are full of Greek inscriptions instead of Latin ones.

PS
accept it, Albanian is also Asian language

In the Bible was written:

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word

and the word is a "track by the mouth" is "left behind" by the mouth/tongue" .

That was the reason the "Ancient" priests, named the WORD-->LOGO-S when they coined the Greek LA_NGUAGE.

 

[Yetos]

In a previous post you told us that,

I agree to Anatoly Fomenko, who argues that the conventional chronology is fundamentally flawed. Also I agree that the events attributed to antiquity actually occurred during the Middle Ages, but I can not decide the length of time that these events really occured after. To reach a definite conclusion you must be an expert in archicecture, linguistics, archeology and historiography at the same time, which I am not, but obviously I have noticed a huge discrapency betwen conventional history and real events. One thing I know for sure, is that the history of the human race , is not the one of the "ethne-s", but that of the religion and rulers, and in this regard to talk about especially proto-Greek and proto-Latin, is senseless.

and that,

Church or trade language, diplomatic, administrative, working or intellectuals one, the so called "Greek" language, always appears as a vehicular language. It has been documented as a religious language on the very start:

and kept the same appearance in the secular literature, widely considered "Ancient" which "misteriously" has been writen many-many centuries after, like this oldest Iliad copy, which belongs to the 10-th Century AD.

or like this other "ancient" text:

Now you tell us that,

No Yetos, "Ancient" Romans were bilingual:

and this is so true that made Juvenal in his Satire VI (184-188, 191-196)
reiterates his indignation against Roman women who prefer the usage of Greek over Latin:



and this was happening in the Western Rome(not the Eastern one-Constantinople) , whose catacombs are full of Greek inscriptions instead of Latin ones.




In the Bible was written:

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word

and the word is a "track by the mouth" is "left behind" by the mouth/tongue" .

That was the reason the "Ancient" priests, named the WORD-->LOGO-S when they coined the Greek LA_NGUAGE.

YOU ALSO TOLD US THAT,

Why? Because this is all what we possess about "Ancient Texts", just Byzantine literature. As a matter of fact the PICTURE nr 2(previous post) was taken from a page from Venetus A, which represent the oldest known complete copy of Iliad that we possess:

Everything else we have about "Ancient Literature" is just small papyrus fragments like this one:

which also date the same period of time.

These texts seem very similar in appearance and most of all in language to the Septuagint ones, like the one I brought in the PICTURE Nr-1(previous post) Esdras in the Codex Vaticanus .
or this other one:
Codex Sinaiticus, a manuscript of the Christian Bible written in the middle of the fourth century, contains the earliest complete copy of the Christian New Testament

Now that I brought the references, I hope you stop doubting my integrity.

WHEN YOU FINALLY DECIDE WHEN GREEK WAS SPOKEN?
BEFORE 1700 or after,
WHEN YOU DECIDE WHO"S CHURCH LANGUAGE WAS GREEK

WHEN YOU DECIDE WHICH IS MORE ANCIENT THE NESTORS CUP OR THE ONES YOU SHOW US
(TO YOU THEY ARE SAME AGE SINCE FAN OF ANATOLY)

WHEN YOU TELL WHICH CHURCH IN EURO TO ALSO BE WRITTEN THE ΕΥΡΩ WORD,

UNTIL THEN YOU ARE JUST A SPAMMER WHO SPAM ........


I AM TIRED OF YOUR ILLUSION THEORIES WITH GLOBAL CONSPIRACY OF CHURCHES EVEN FROM ZEUS TIME TO TODAY CHRIST AND ALLAH.
I AM TIRED OF YOU TO TOLD THAT GREEKS NAVER INVADE AND NEVER COLONISE IN ANCIENT WORLD.

YOUR POSTS SHOW CLEAR WHAT IS YOUR INTENSION, UNDER WHOSE COMMAND YOU SPAM,

GREEKS WERE SLAUGHTER BY CHURCH IN THE CAMPS OF SCYTHOPOLIS

GREEK WERE THE VICTIMS OF CHURCH IN GREECE AND ALEXANDREIA,

CODEX THEOSIANUS AND A GREAT SAINT BASILEIOS OF CEASAREIA THEY SAID DEATH TO GREEKS,

AND NOW YOU TELL ME THAT CHURCH FORCE PEOPLE TO LEARN GREEK

TELKL US ZEUS WHY CHURCH SEND VELISARIUS TO KILL THE GREEKS IN SOUTH ITALY IF THEY DON"T BECOME CHRISTIANS

TELL US WHY JOHN OF EFFESUS IN A LETTER TO JUSTINIAN ( I THINK IN a NETHERLAND MUSEUM) SAY I MANAGE TO TURN 14 000 to the divine church but I have to kill 36 000.
IN EPHESUS, ARTEMIS OF EPHESIANS,

AND YOU TELL THAT PEOPLE LEARN GREEK FROM CHURCH?


OFCOURSE YOU ALSO DENY THAT AND KEEP SPAMMING,


DO YOU DENY THE CRUELTY OF CHURCH AGAINST GREEKS?
UNTIL 900 THEY KILL GREEK SPEAKERS AS PAGANS, AND YOU TELL ME THAT GREEK LEARN language FROM CHURCH?

in 1700 a catholic priest (abba Fourmont) came to sparta with permission of Sultan and greeds of church, and destroy the city, today we can not found Sparta cause Clergy destroy it to the ground.
And you tell me that Greek is a clergy language?

simply your posts reflect your mental existance,

once you told us that we know Greek from papyrus and then you show us stones
you never told us how old are they,
once you told us about Anatoly and deny, and in the other you tell us about catacombs as they happened in 17th century,
you tell us that Church (Polythistic, Paganist and Christian? are they the same?) learn the people Greek language, but you never heard that church killed Greek speakers.

To you as I see from your posts
maybe Nestor's cup was written by a Christian priest,
Pella katadesmos by a MONK
and Alexander the great was a Bishop.

and I say again

EURO
ΕΥΡΩ

is that also work of the church?


PS

ZEUS ARE TRYING TO TELL US HERE, THAT THE WHOLE EUROPEAN UNION IS UNDER CHURCH SUPERVISION?
WHICH CHURCH?

ARE TELLING THAT ANCIENT WORLD WAS SO STUPID THAT LEARN LANGUAGE FROM CHURCH?
ARE YOU TELLING US HERE THAT LATIN LANGUAGES AND GREEK LANGUAGES SPEAKERS ARE SO STUPID THAT LEARN LANGUAGE FROM A CHURCH, (YOU NEVER SAID WHO'S CHURCH?)

it is like telling us that from Portugal to Syria and from Egypt to Crimaia world learn a language from church? no wars happened, no colonisation, no naval battles, no invasions, no devastations.
Then tell me which church is that so I can go to learn more,
Maybe next time you tell us that ancient people stand at 4, and clergy learn to walk with 2 feet. :innocent:


PS 2

'ΜΕ ΤΗΝ ΒΟΗΘΕΙΑ ΤΟΥ ΘΕΟΥ ΔΕΝ ΕΙΜΕΘΑ ΕΛΛΗΝΕΣ'
'WITH THE HELP OF GOD WE ARE NOT GREEKS'
THAT WAS SAID BY A FAMOUS SAINT IN HIS BOOK ΔΙΔΑΧΑΙ Γ' Saint KOSMAS AETOLIAN.

WHEN YPSILANTIS SAID NO WE ARE GREEKS at 1821, CHURCH PUNISH HIM.

AND YOU TELL ME THAT CHURCH learn Greek language to Greeks?
Church told the people you are not Greeks
and you tell me that GreeK 'is made in' church.

 

[Francisus]

My american friends would tell me that if you join a fraternity in the U.S. you need to learn how to recite the greek alphabet while holding a match upside down. A lotta burnt fingers im presuming.

 

[8mike]

Zeus don't forget about germanic *tungo, Old Latin dingua, Oscan fancua which are all cognates to "lingua". Also our "gjuhe" is clearly a cognate to γλώσσα since Arbereshe still pronounce it "gluha"