Everyone knows there is a fairly logical correlation between R1b-M269 and Indo-European languages in Western Europe. However, looking at linguistic maps of pre-Roman Iberia, and comparing them to current haplogroup distribution maps, one can't help noticing that the entire eastern Iberia and the Pyrenees, areas where non-EU languages were spoken (Iberian, Aquitanian/Proto-Basque), have an overwhelming presence of R1b (80-85%), whereas the West of the peninsula, which was an IE stronghold (Lusitanian & various Celtic languages), has a considerably lower rate of R1b (50-60%).
What could explain this? What went "wrong" in Iberia, in regards to the "R-M269 = IE" equation?
I know it has been proposed that the Basques, as the one exception to the general rule in Europe, were originally IE R1b's whose kids learned their mothers's native language, but is it reasonable to assume that this process happened in such a larger scale, in about 1/3 of Iberia + SW France? Confusing...
What could explain this? What went "wrong" in Iberia, in regards to the "R-M269 = IE" equation?
I know it has been proposed that the Basques, as the one exception to the general rule in Europe, were originally IE R1b's whose kids learned their mothers's native language, but is it reasonable to assume that this process happened in such a larger scale, in about 1/3 of Iberia + SW France? Confusing...