I've got a cousin with whom I share a MRCA about 3200 ybp. His family lived in England and Ireland by the name of Sinnott, a noble family that arrived with the Norman conquerors in the 11th century. This is an example of a late entry of E-V13 on the British Isles, so they aren’t directly a descendant of Roman soldiers. Let's exclude that Sir Sinnott belonged to the aggressive Scandinavian elite and assume that he belonged to the French nobles. He might have had an ancestor who was a Roman soldier, since Greater Paris stayed Roman for a long time, but the Romans had been defeated earlier by the Francs under King Clovis. So the Sinnotts may have been Francs and have come from Northern France and Belgium. This also was under Roman rule? Yes, but they also resisted and revolted all the time (Caesar: Belgiums are the bravest of all) and the territory was soon occupied by allied Francs (but non-Romans) who came from the Northern side off the Rhine. This is where my family lived by the end of the Middle Ages as farmers that were feudally related to the whole bunch of local aristocracy that had strongholds on the eastside of the Rhine traditionally held by Teutonic Roman-eaters. I consider myself a cultivated man and would welcome a Roman, or even better Greek ancestor, but it just doesn’t feel like that. Actually, I don’t know any fancy genealogy of European gentry that relates itself to Romans unless they lived at least a three days’ travel away from the Rhine. Nonetheless, both Sinnott and I share a cousin in Tuscany with the same MRCA about 3200 ybp. So are we Romans after all, or is the Italian a captured Germanic or do the Irishman, Italian and Dutchman share a common Celtic ancestor that lived in the Hercynian Forest? Please advise.
