Thracians spoke Balto Slavic language

I always wondered if there were some Italic tribes in Romania in pre-Roman and Roman times. Left over after Italics' migration from East to West? They came from somewhere East, settled in Valachia(?), then after few centuries, half of them moved to Italy, half stayed there. This might explain dominance of Romance/Vlach language in this area, In other areas it was easier for Thracians to change to old Slavic, because of similarities and satem nature of these two languages.


That's a good point ,but i wouldn't go that far, at least regarding the Romanian language.
It's likely that the Thracians absorbed some proto-Italic tribes who were left behind.
See Thracian"romphaia",cognate to Latin "rumpere"(to break).
From the archaeological point of view, Wallachia(Monteoru culture is the most proposed horizon for an "autohtonous"Thracian culture spreaded to Moldavia and parts of Transylvania also),historical Moldavia and some regions further east,from Ukraine, were the original Thracian lands.
Later from Monteoru with a Srubna imput, Sabatinovka-Noua-Coslogeni complex emerged.But the influences diffused also from the Danube to Ukraine(see Kuzmina-"The Origin of the Indo-Iranians" pg.355-360, on google books).
This is the so called "Cimmerian" or "Thraco-Cimmerain" horizon.
In most of the Transylvania and towards Hungarian border,material culture presents analogies with the Central European area (till eastern Alps).
Transylvanian cultures were pressured by the eastern tribes who were looking for gold and copper.
Although cultural traits from these tribes were preserved till later stages,in the 6-4 cent. BC the Agathyrsi( a Scythian group with analogies in the Middle Dnieper area and Podolia) occupied that area.



Getae-Dacian language(s) were surely of Satem type.The words, toponyms etc.preserved show similarities to Thracian-Baltic(although you could group some Dacian-Thracian words ,most of them were closer to Baltic) and Iranian.
For instance, Dacian "dava" is related to Zazaki "Dewe"(a village) and Persian "Divar"(a Wall).

Romanian and Aromanian are more "abrasive" than other Romanic languages ,because Latin was adopted by some Satem speakers.
We can exclude the Slavic influence,who is virtually absent in Aromanian.
Romanian is a Late Antiquity product(it is closer to all the Romance languages than Latin,especially to southern Italian dialects,because of the Eastern Roman Empire influence in Italy;however this not necesarly imply a migrationist scenario,the colonists that were left behind after the Aurelian Withdraw received influences-religious books ,bishops- from south of the Danube)
,developed in the Moesia Prima,Dacia Ripensis,Dacia Mediterranea Moesia Secunda as well as N Dardania and NW Thrace.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/La_Spezia–Rimini_Line





"The long interval between the two civil-war triumphs of the Danube
legions, in 69 for the Flavians and in 193 for the Severi, witnessed a steady
but unremarkable assimilation of the Celtic, Illyrian and Thracian peoples
of the Danube lands to a Latin-speaking Roman provincial culture. On the
south a limit was set to this process by the Hellenistic traditions of the
ancient kingdoms of Epirus, Macedonia and Thrace
The Danube provinces of the Roman empire
were dominated by the presence of the army. By around the end of the
period almost half of the legions (twelve out of thirty; c. 60,000 men) and
more than a third of the auxilia (c. 80,000 men) were based along the Danube.
The legions which had advanced the boundaries of the empire to
the Danube in the first century A.D. came from Italy and the colonies.





By the middle decades of the second century there had developed in the
Danube provinces a Latin-speaking Roman provincial culture to which
local native traditions appear to have contributed little. This was based on
the growing settlements along the river and was bound up with the influence
of locally recruited legions and auxilia.

The Latin language was dominant throughout the frontier provinces of
the Danube. Greek remained confined to the southern Balkans and did
not spread significantly beyond the limits of Hellenistic Macedonia and
Thrace. As most recently defined from the evidence of inscriptions, the linguistic
frontier in Roman Europe followed more or less the southern boundaries
of Latin Dalmatia, Moesia Superior and Moesia Inferior; and this
demarcation altered hardly at all during the Roman era.

Little sign of what might be termed ‘native resistance’ to Roman rule and
the way of life in general can be seen in the Danube provinces. There were
undoubtedly recurrent outbreaks of brigandage, some serious, in several
areas. Yet there is no suggestion that any of it was a reaction specifically
to Roman rule, any more than it has been to the several comparable regimes
that have sought to dominate the Balkans since then. The native peoples
came to accept a version of the Roman way of life. From among the native
Danubians who joined first the auxilia and then the legions we can recognize
the ancestors of a military class who were to become dominant in the
empire from the middle of the third century."(Cambridge Ancient History vol.11).

The Latin inscriptions distribution:


mihaescu.jpg
 
"The long interval between the two civil-war triumphs of the Danube
legions, in 69 for the Flavians and in 193 for the Severi, witnessed a steady
but unremarkable assimilation of the Celtic, Illyrian and Thracian peoples
of the Danube lands to a Latin-speaking Roman provincial culture. On the
south a limit was set to this process by the Hellenistic traditions of the
ancient kingdoms of Epirus, Macedonia and Thrace
The Danube provinces of the Roman empire
were dominated by the presence of the army. By around the end of the
period almost half of the legions (twelve out of thirty; c. 60,000 men) and
more than a third of the auxilia (c. 80,000 men) were based along the Danube.
The legions which had advanced the boundaries of the empire to
the Danube in the first century A.D. came from Italy and the colonies.
Thanks for a great explanation. This heavy Roman military presence in Balkans, above Greek territory, and strong economic impact of this presence, might have been indeed enough to give start of proto Romanian language and the Vlachs.
 
Well the question still remains,how come people from South Danube are speaking Slavic,where Roman Empire influence was very long and very strong,while in Moldavia (in both parts,Bessarabia and the part of Moldavia that is united with Romania) people are speaking Romance,where Roman Empire was absent?
EDIT:
I did not heard about archeological discoveries linked to Roman Empire in Moldavia.
In Transylvania,are lots of discoveries linked to Celts,besides those linked to Roman Empire,I think are more discoveries linked to Celts,than those linked to Roman Empire.
So no wonder that people from Transylvania are not that light haired as those from Moldavia and especially Bessarabia,where I think Thraco-Dacian element is most strong.
As physical look,they are between Ukrainians and Baltic people (most people from Bessarabia and Moldavia) ,think they are more baltid than those from Ukraine.
 
Well the question still remains,how come people from South Danube are speaking Slavic,where Roman Empire influence was very long and very strong,while in Moldavia (in both parts,Bessarabia and the part of Moldavia that is united with Romania) people are speaking Romance,where Roman Empire was absent?
EDIT:
I did not heard about archeological discoveries linked to Roman Empire in Moldavia.
In Transylvania,are lots of discoveries linked to Celts,besides those linked to Roman Empire,I think are more discoveries linked to Celts,than those linked to Roman Empire.
So no wonder that people from Transylvania are not that light haired as those from Moldavia and especially Bessarabia,where I think Thraco-Dacian element is most strong.
As physical look,they are between Ukrainians and Baltic people (most people from Bessarabia and Moldavia) ,think they are more baltid than those from Ukraine.

For me, it is very interesting attitude of respectable Italian linguist Mario Alinei that South Slavic languages (Serbian, Bulgarian etc.) are older than Western and East Slavic branches. And he goes far in the ancient, according to Paleolithic continue theory.

For example, according this theory IE word me is Paleolithic and it is similar in newer IE languages:

Paleolithic IE word me*
Celtic Old Ir. me
Germanic Goth mik
Germanic Sw. mig
Italic Lat. mihi, me
Italic Umb. mehe
Greek, μου
Old Lith. mi
Lith. mane
Serb. mene, me
Pol. mnie
Rus. меня
Albanian mua
 
How Alinei explains the language that Romanians are speaking?
I have seen closed linguistics,between Romanian and Serbo-Croatian :
For example,the verb to be:
serbo croatian romanian
I sg Ja sam Eu sunt
II sg Tu si Tu esti (but Polish jeste)
III sg On/Ona/Ono je El/Ea este (shortcut form for this,El/Ea e,polish jest romanian sometimes pronounce e with a i in front,making almost same as in polish)
I pl Mi smo Noi suntem (not closed here)
II pl Vi ste Voi sunteti (not closed either here)
III pl Oni/One/Ona su Ei/Ele sunt
 
One thing is clear that today's Romania has absorbed a lot of slavic genes and language.



The so called "Slavic genes" are not exclusively Slavic,that's for sure.


Sculputures representing Dacians(mostly proto-Baltics and various Iranian types):

http://statuidedaci.ro/en/italy/rome


Romans fighting against Dacians(scenes from the Trajan's Column):

pontica2002-2003.jpg01030140.jpg3537541060_130c6829b3.jpg






The proto-Slavs could have been just an elite inside the Avar Khaganate;their "success" was based on the historical events(no more "bad boys comin' to town" long after the Avars),and the locals ,who spoke Satem languages close enough to proto-Slavic (see one of LeBrok's post on this thread).
So, even in a "mass-migration" scenario ,they had to absorb substantial "local" genes;it's a natural thing, it happened in Albania and in the entire Balkanic area-what's different? the communities living north(no matter how far) of the Danube were closer to proto-Slavs from the material culture,linguistic and genetical point of view, sometimes you could'nt distinguish these features.




According to Fredegar, the Slavs have long
been subject to the Avars, “who used them as Befulci.” The word is
cognate with fulcfree, a term occurring in the Edict of the Lombard king
Rothari. Both derive from the Old German felhan, falh, fulgum (hence the
Middle German bevelhen), meaning “to entrust to, to give someone in
guard.” To Fredegar, therefore, Wends was a name for special military
units of the Avar army.

“‘Cultures’,” as one archaeologist noted, “do not migrate. It is often only
a very narrowly defined, goal-oriented subgroup that migrates.” To
speak of the Prague culture as the culture of the migrating Slavs is, therefore,
a nonsense
Furthermore, the archaeological evidence discussed in this chapter
does not match any long-distance migratory pattern. Assemblages in the
Lower Danube area, both east and south of the Carpathian mountains,
antedate those of the alleged Slavic Urheimat in the Zhitomir Polesie, on
which Irina Rusanova based her theory of the Prague-Korchak-
Zhitomir type. More recent attempts to move the Urheimat to Podolia
and northern Bukovina are ultimately based on the dating of crossbow
brooches found at Kodyn and some other places. These brooches,
however, are not the only late fifth- or early sixth-century artifacts in the
area. Despite lack of closed finds comparable to those at Kodyn, there are
good reasons to believe that at least some archaeological assemblages in
south and east Romania go back as early as c. 500. The evidence is certainly
too meager to draw any firm conclusions, but from what we have
it appears that instead of a “Slavic culture” originating in a homeland and
then spreading to surrounding areas, we should envisage a much broader
area of common economic and cultural traditions. The implementation
of an agricultural economic profile, which is so evident on later sites, is
very likely to have involved some short-distance movement of people.
The dominant type of economy seems to have been some form of “itinerant
agriculture” which encouraged settlement mobility. Suzana
Dolinescu-Ferche’s research at Dulceanca brilliantly illustrates this model.
Such population movements, however, cannot be defined as migration.
There is simply no evidence for the idea that the inhabitants of the sixthand
early seventh-century settlements in Romania, Moldova, and
Ukraine were colonists from the North.
Nor does the idea of a “Slavic tide” covering the Balkans in the early
600s fit the existing archaeological data. South of the Danube river, no
archaeological assemblage comparable to those found north of that river
produced any clear evidence for a date earlier than c. 700.

Second, Common Slavic itself may have been used as a lingua franca
within and outside the Avar qaganate. This may explain, in the eyes of
some linguists, the spread of this language throughout most of Eastern
Europe, obliterating old dialects and languages. It may also explain why
this language remained fairly stable and remarkably uniform through the
ninth century, with only a small number of isoglosses that began to form
before Old Church Slavonic was written down.(Curta,"The Making of the Slavs")
 
Alinei theory does not present evidences of how come Romanians are speaking a Romance language,which can be explained only if the people that were in Dacia,before Dacians came and conquered them,were speaking some Celto-Italic dialect.
As for "Slavic genes" thing is,there is lots of Italic admixture in South Slavs,on K36,I highly doubt Roman Empire brought so many colonists from Italy there,to explain so much Italic admixture.
Only if Illyrians were speakers of a Centum language and a population related to Italians,can explain so much Italic admixture in South Slavs.
After Roman Empire conquest,lots of Dacians moved South of Danube and since Dacians were more than natives,this is how South Slavic was adopted in Serbia,Croatia,Montenegro,Bosnia .And Albanians were just another Dacian tribe,who moved South of Danube so this why Albanians are also speaking a Satem language.
In Romania/Dacia a part of Dacians remained, not so many but lots of natives (the natives are called in Jordanes Gothica,"Oium").
After,when Bulgars are coming,the get allied with natives of Dacia/Romania,south of part of it and form that Bulgarian empire.
And people from South of Danube,were Bulgaria is,are starting to get assimilated,to a South Slavic language.

So I think ye,Dacians were speaking Balto-Slavic and normally Thracians also,but they were only ruling class in Romania/Dacia and other lands,not the mass of the population.
The mass of the population was different and remained different,as you move from North to South and from East to West,in Slavic speaking areas.
The association of R1A1 with Slavs is not really something that is checking,for example there is Norse R1A1 which has nothing to do with Slavs,there are Bosnians,or Montenegrins,who have very few R1A1.
EDIT:
Just remembered that I have seen Ukrainians having something like 10% Italic admixture,on K36.
Did Roman Empire brought any colonists to Ukraine?
And I think this "Italic" admixture is actually some kind of Celto-Italic admixture,not really Italic only (being present at both Italic and Gaulish tribes,not only at Italic tribes).
EDIT2:
Dacians (and I suppose Thracians also) were known for not having Slaves.
I also think that the Balto-Slavic/Dacian expanse of Dacian/Thracian language came from Balkans towards North and not reversed.
As an argument,that Illyrians can be people that were conquered and assimilated by Dacians,are the Aromanian languages.
I have seen Aromanians (but from South Danube) who were having even 40% J on their paternal lines.
So it seems that the living together of Illyrians and Dacians/Thracians was quite good,since is known Dacian king Burebista is going in an expedition against Celts who were living South of Danube between Thracians and Illyrians.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burebista#Conquests_and_external_policy
"Burebista led a policy of conquest of new territories: in 60/59 BC, he attacked and vanquished the Celtic tribes of Boii and Taurisci, who dwelt along the Middle Danube and in what is now Slovakia. After 55 BC and probably before 48 BC, Burebista conquered the Black Sea shore, subjugating the Greek fortresses from Olbia to Apollonia, as well as the Danubian Plain all the way to the Balkans.[2] Strabo also mentions the expeditions against a group of Celts who lived among the Thracians and Illyrians (probably the Scordisci).[6]"
So it can be seen that Burebista went against Celts,who were living between Illyrians and Thracians,not against Illyrians.
 
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For me, it is very interesting attitude of respectable Italian linguist Mario Alinei that South Slavic languages (Serbian, Bulgarian etc.) are older than Western and East Slavic branches. And he goes far in the ancient, according to Paleolithic continue theory.

For example, according this theory IE word me is Paleolithic and it is similar in newer IE languages:

Paleolithic IE word me*
Celtic Old Ir. me
Germanic Goth mik
Germanic Sw. mig
Italic Lat. mihi, me
Italic Umb. mehe
Greek, μου
Old Lith. mi
Lith. mane
Serb. mene, me
Pol. mnie
Rus. меня
Albanian mua

the fact a word in "me" is palelolithical is very hard to proove, I think, and I don't see what help this hypothesis could give us concerning the problem of proximity between balto-slavic languages and thracian or dacian - this kind of basic word is very old in every language... -
that it could be old is not so surprising - by the way, finnic-ugric mordvin has 'mon' = "me", ("I") , 'ton' = "thou" and 'son' = "he", "she" all forms that can be found with diverse functions but close meanings in I-Ean languages
I think Alinei had at first some good ideas but later become to put intuitive theory before data -
 
The so called "Slavic genes" are not exclusively Slavic,that's for sure.


Sculputures representing Dacians(mostly proto-Baltics and various Iranian types):

http://statuidedaci.ro/en/italy/rome


Romans fighting against Dacians(scenes from the Trajan's Column):

View attachment 6197View attachment 6198View attachment 6199
It is interesting to see Romans in skirts and Dacians wearing pants. It might mean that Dacian origin might lie somewhere North where climate is colder, and explains satem connection.


Second, Common Slavic itself may have been used as a lingua franca
within and outside the Avar qaganate. This may explain, in the eyes of
some linguists, the spread of this language throughout most of Eastern
Europe, obliterating old dialects and languages. It may also explain why
this language remained fairly stable and remarkably uniform through the
ninth century, with only a small number of isoglosses that began to form
before Old Church Slavonic was written down.(Curta,"The Making of the Slavs")
Probably not a lingua franca. Slavic grammar survived in pretty good shape in all slavic languages. If it was a lingua franca, and learnet by locals as a second language, it would have gotten simplified as Latin becoming pig latin. The only simplifications of grammar could be observed in Macedonian and Bulgarian, which could mean that Slavs were minorities ones they've reached so far South.
 
It is interesting to see Romans in skirts and Dacians wearing pants. It might mean that Dacian origin might lie somewhere North where climate is colder, and explains satem connection.

This long shirt wrapped with a belt,giving the "skirt" appearance is typical for all of the Indo-Europeans.

http://www.fashion-era.com/ancient_costume/roman-costume-history-toga.htm


a far-east europoid:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:HanForeigner3rdCentury.jpg




http://www.academia.edu/3471735/Reconstructing_the_Dacian_infantryman


You can find these "skirt'n'pants" costumes in the mountain regions of southern Balkans also.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fustanella



Another interesting article is the "phrygian cap":

http://daco-getica.blogspot.ro/2011_01_01_archive.html
 
This long shirt wrapped with a belt,giving the "skirt" appearance is typical for all of the Indo-Europeans.

http://www.fashion-era.com/ancient_costume/roman-costume-history-toga.htm


a far-east europoid:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:HanForeigner3rdCentury.jpg




http://www.academia.edu/3471735/Reconstructing_the_Dacian_infantryman


You can find these "skirt'n'pants" costumes in the mountain regions of southern Balkans also.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fustanella



Another interesting article is the "phrygian cap":

http://daco-getica.blogspot.ro/2011_01_01_archive.html
What I meant is that pants can indicate who's from North who's from South. Romans and Greeks don't wear pants, Dacians and Scatians do.
 
What I meant is that pants can indicate who's from North who's from South. Romans and Greeks don't wear pants, Dacians and Scatians do.

That might have been true originally, but when horseback riding became a thing, trousers might in some cases have come to indicate what people are pastoralists who normally ride horses. Although the northern people would probably keep their trousers even if they didn't ride horses.
 
They are not equally satemized. Some centum words in Slavic languages have very similar satemized cognates in Baltic languages example: Pol. gwiazda; Lit. žvaigždė; Eng. star. Baltic and Slavic seem to be very similar but they have some old independent changes, which contradict theory of proto-Balto-Slavic. The other way to explain similarities between Baltic and Slavic is that they were close neighbors for long time. Genetic similarity is because, before Slavic expansion area of Belarus and central Russia was settled by Baltic tribes.

the today slight enough differences between two close families of languages cannot logically be taken as the proof of absence of ancient common proto-language!!!
no offense! I think Baltic is closer to the ancient core of this family and Slavic was more influenced by "autochtonous" pre-I-E populations of the East Carpathians region, just a bet -
 
I'm not saying slavic and baltic languages of today have only slight differences - but in ancient time surely they were closer one to another even if having already differences : this is not the proof of an absence of common origin not too far in past - gaelic developped big differences compared to brittonic or gaulish and nobody serious (I think) deny a common celtic origin to these languages -
 
After 100 years german language can belong to Turks, because their minority born 8-10 children when Germans have (if only) 1 child. Language do not belong to any haplogroup. In Mozambique people speak portuguese, are they Portuguese? In Russia they try speak slavic, are they real Slavic people? Irish speaks (german) english, are they Germans or Celts?
 
It does not necessarily, but sometimes it can be related to some haplogroups.
 
After 100 years german language can belong to Turks, because their minority born 8-10 children when Germans have (if only) 1 child. Language do not belong to any haplogroup. In Mozambique people speak portuguese, are they Portuguese? In Russia they try speak slavic, are they real Slavic people? Irish speaks (german) english, are they Germans or Celts?

Correct...we all speak English here...are we all English!
 
Slavs as name appeared after Gothic migration so is possible that their name was taken from Viking influence ,since Slav means "famous" from Slava.

I'm sorry mihaitzateo. I pressed edit button instead of reply to the post and edited your post accidently. I hope you can recreate the post. Sorry again.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
I'm sorry mihaitzateo. I pressed edit button instead of reply to the post and edited your post accidently. I hope you can recreate the post. Sorry again.

I do not remember exactly what I wrote there,but I said that Slavs,as this name appeared after Gothic migrations.
And that is a theory,that says that Slavs name comes from Slava which means fame,in Slavic languages (the mainstream theory is that their name comes from people speaking same language).
Is known that Sarmatians for example were main allies of Goths.
Also,Vikings were the ones who were eager for fame and one of the main reasons for which they were raiding,was to get famous.
So Scytho - Sarmatians under Viking and Gothic influence,got this also,to fight for fame and wanting to be famous.
And is not known is Sarmatians were included in Thracians,or not,but is known they were speaking a Satem language.
As for Slavs,there is not a common paternal HG present at all Slavic speakers,for example Montenegrins have very few R1A but they have significant J2.
If Slavs are descending from Scytho Sarmatians tribes,which under the influence of Germanic tribes evolved into Slavs,this would explain really well the presence of J2 in high percentages in Montenegrins .
And this would also explain really well why Russia had as rulers Vikings,since they were allied to Goths and Vikings.
I have noticed on K36 presence of Balcanic admixture in Baltic people,at low percentages.
So is possible to have been something like -- Scytho-Sarmatians conquered Baltic tribes and imposed that language there after, some Scytho-Sarmato-Balts are moving again Southward (the Slavic migration from 600,recorded to Balkans).
A very weird thing is the different grammar from South Slavic languages to Eastern Slavic and Western Slavic languages.
I have heard by a Slav (Russian or Pole) that Bulgarian have very few influences in grammar from their language.
There is also the theory of Poles,which says that Polish nobility was from Sarmatians.
This Scytho-Sarmatian theory would also explain how R1b-ht35 got at high percentages in Poland.
Just to add one more thing,I think Slavic speakers are very diverse as autosomal genetics,ranging from NE Europeans,to fully SE Europeans,which can be easily explained by the fact that Slavic languages were spread by a warrior elite,that conquered various areas from Europe.
If you take Germanic speakers,they are pretty Nordish people as genetics,while Romance speakers,quite Southern European as genetics.
 

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