The mystery of Lactase Persistence (LP) in Europeans

I was trying to consider what other possibilities might explain the situation, but yes, a near complete population replacement by people who already have a high level of lactase persistence would seem to be the only probable explanation, assuming that the research is sound, and it seems to be.


I think the answer to this question can probably be found by reversing the question.

1. Why aren't all humans in Eurasia 100% lactase persistent? After all, it is claimed to be a super-gene and cattle have been kept in Egypt, Mespotamia, China and Southern Europe since...forever.

But LP is not 100% in these areas or even significant. Having been introduced to cattle or having some small percentage of cattle breeder ancestry didn't necessarily improve its distribution beyond the percentage of the ancestral population that contributed the LP genes or the cattle.
Dienekes made a comment similar to this concerning the percentage of LP among Native American and mestizo populations which I found interesting.

There really is no reason to believe that Neolithic Europeans suddenly became LP upon introduction any more than it should have in China IMO. This is probably even more true in NW Europe where the Neolithic arrived late (even being mostly non-LP). While LP could be viewed as beneficial, it is noteworthy that the largest modern human populations by country are generally not LP, so I am skeptical about the super-selectability of this gene.

I think what this suggests is the Chalcolithic immigrants into NW Europe (probably the Bell Beaker) were already 100% LP and the percentage of modern LP in Western Europe most likely directly correlates with the percentage of this ancestry.

I also would not rule out the possibility that the separate LP gene in Southern Algeria, Mali and down into Cameroon are derived from a population movement from the wet Sahara.

There is a big Bell Beaker study out there somewhere. I will be very interested to see what it yields about the mysterious Beakers!
 
So am I. China, as just one example, seems to have produced large populations since the Neolithic without any dependence on dairy products.

Random mutations obviously arose in different parts of the world that permitted the consumption of dairy products, but it doesn't seem to have been universal or essential for survival.

All of this emphasis on it sometimes seems to me to just be a reflection of a level of eurocentrism that I didn't really expect to see in academics, although maybe I'm missing something here.
 
I was trying to consider what other possibilities might explain the situation, but yes, a near complete population replacement by people who already have a high level of lactase persistence would seem to be the only probable explanation, assuming that the research is sound, and it seems to be.


Perhaps gathering up Lactose intolerant members can shed some light. As a lactose intolerant myself, I ended up with 53.45% EEF, 35.81% WHG and 14.34% ANE :)
 
So am I. China, as just one example, seems to have produced large populations since the Neolithic without any dependence on dairy products.

Random mutations obviously arose in different parts of the world that permitted the consumption of dairy products, but it doesn't seem to have been universal or essential for survival.

All of this emphasis on it sometimes seems to me to just be a reflection of a level of eurocentrism that I didn't really expect to see in academics, although maybe I'm missing something here.
That's right. One thing is that it is a very young mutation, the other that it is not essential for humans to survive. It however gave a big advantage for populations in some geographical areas in our past.
 
Perhaps gathering up Lactose intolerant members can shed some light. As a lactose intolerant myself, I ended up with 53.45% EEF, 35.81% WHG and 14.34% ANE :)

Your results would seem to suggest that low ANE=lactose intolerance, except for the fact that one result doesn't prove anything. However, if enough other lactose intolerant people reported their autosomal mixture, we might see a trend. But if the results did indicate that low ANE can be equated with lactose intolerance, it would be a bit difficult to explain why the arrival of the Neolithic in Britain apparently resulted in a near total reliance on milk for proteins, IMO.
 
So am I. China, as just one example, seems to have produced large populations since the Neolithic without any dependence on dairy products.

Random mutations obviously arose in different parts of the world that permitted the consumption of dairy products, but it doesn't seem to have been universal or essential for survival.

All of this emphasis on it sometimes seems to me to just be a reflection of a level of eurocentrism that I didn't really expect to see in academics, although maybe I'm missing something here.

A website about European genetics is likely to seem somewhat Eurocentric at times, IMO. In any case, data from other parts of the world might not be that useful. African pastoralists probably have very high rates of lactase persistence, but in most cases their ancestors have probably been raising cattle for thousands of years, so their rates of lactase persistence might not tell us when or how it arises among other populations. Examining the issue in the Middle East might not be helpful, since the areas that are level enough to be suitable for raising cattle have generally become arid enough that there probably aren't as many cattle being raised there as previously, and we don't really have any information as to whether lactase persistence can die out if dairy milk consumption decreases substantially. Any data from China would be of little use, IMO, unless you can show that they have a long history of consuming milk from cattle, and we can identify which groups were traditionally farmers and which groups were traditionally pastoralists. In general, if we want to know whether lactase persistence in Europe arose among Neolithic farmers or was brought in by bronze age invaders, I think we have to rely mainly on European data. I don't see it as Eurocentric to only use the data that's relevant to a particular issue.
 
A website about European genetics is likely to seem somewhat Eurocentric at times, IMO. In any case, data from other parts of the world might not be that useful. African pastoralists probably have very high rates of lactase persistence, but in most cases their ancestors have probably been raising cattle for thousands of years, so their rates of lactase persistence might not tell us when or how it arises among other populations. Examining the issue in the Middle East might not be helpful, since the areas that are level enough to be suitable for raising cattle have generally become arid enough that there probably aren't as many cattle being raised there as previously, and we don't really have any information as to whether lactase persistence can die out if dairy milk consumption decreases substantially. Any data from China would be of little use, IMO, unless you can show that they have a long history of consuming milk from cattle, and we can identify which groups were traditionally farmers and which groups were traditionally pastoralists. In general, if we want to know whether lactase persistence in Europe arose among Neolithic farmers or was brought in by bronze age invaders, I think we have to rely mainly on European data. I don't see it as Eurocentric to only use the data that's relevant to a particular issue.

Aberdeen, I think I said that I found the intense interest in the topic, and even more so the claims that it is so supremely beneficial to be rather eurocentric, not the choice of where to gather data. It can't be so supremely important if most of the world, including places which do raise cattle, developed very large populations without it.
.
 
Aberdeen, I think I said that I found the intense interest in the topic, and even more so the claims that it is so supremely beneficial to be rather eurocentric, not the choice of where to gather data. It can't be so supremely important if most of the world, including places which do raise cattle, developed very large populations without it.
.

I do think that the domestication of cattle, the consumption of cow's milk and the development of lactase persistence were definitely very important in terms of health and population growth for european farmers and pastoralists, even though today cow's milk perhaps doesn't seem quite as important as it probably did to our ancestors. And I think that cow's milk has been and continues to be very important to African pastoralists such as the Masai. Do you find the Masai to be Eurocentric for thinking that cow's milk is supremely beneficial? I believe the Masai value milk even more than Europeans do.
 
?tzi (G+K) has not LP, Alda?ta (R+ H / J / T) LP.
Among Arab (J+T) as LP.
So North Africa is influenced by both LP groups.
 
It's totally cool, It would be interesting to find the trend. I'll see if I can open up a new page ;)
 
text Eupedia :

Lactose (milk sugar) is an essential component of breast milk consumed by infants. Its digrestion is made possible by an enzyme, called lactase, which breaks down lactose in simple sugars that can be absorbed through the intestinal walls and into the bloodstream. In most mammals (humans included), the production of the lactase enzyme is dramatically reduced soon after weaning. As a result, older children and adults become lactose intolerant. That is true of a big part of the world population. Some people possess a genetic mutation that allows the production of lactase through adulthood. This is called lactase persistence (LP). Lactase persistence is particularly common among Northwest Europeans, descended from the ancient Celtic and Germanic people, and in parts of Africa where cattle herding has been practiced for thousands of years. The highest incidence for the lactase persistence alleles, known to geneticists as -13,910*T (rs4988235) and -22018*A (rs182549), are found among Scandinavian, Dutch, British, Irish and Basque people. Sub-Saharan populations with lactase persistence have different mutations, such as -14010*C, -13915*G and -13907*G.
 
I doubt if lactase persistence was native to any region prior to people in that region owning cattle and drinking milk on a regular basis. And I suspect that once a population began to consume milk on a regular basis, lactase persistence increased over time. I just question the idea of linking lactase persistence to any particular haplotype such as R1b. I doubt that Basques have a higher level of lactase persistence that Poles, for example. If they do, I would suspect that lactase persistence is dependent on genetics as much as it is milk consumption, in which case maybe you could link it to R1b in the past and perhaps even now in the case of populations that have remained more separate than most in recent centuries, such as Basques. But I suspect it's solely about what groups have been consuming large amounts milk in the past and continue to do so, in which case I would expect a more north/south bias than a west/east bias. From what I've seen, Slavs are just as avid milk drinkers as Germanic people and much more so than Iberians.

no in Russia and in Poland they do not drink a lot of milk nor the cheese and it makes fun a bit of me who bought many dairy products and they say to me who if they also put some milk in their coffee then they are sick and it is in Russia where I developed habit to drink black coffee but never they put a drop of milk in tea and I had surprised a lot it (I add that I am Basque)
 
Aberdeen, I think I said that I found the intense interest in the topic, and even more so the claims that it is so supremely beneficial to be rather eurocentric, not the choice of where to gather data. <b>It can't be so supremely important if most of the world, including places which do raise cattle, developed very large populations without it.</b>
.

That's what makes it supremely important - the fact that it must have supremely important in one region of the world to have been selected for so strongly in that region but not in others. That means it is supremely important in European history but more generally it also proves very strong selection for dietary advantages. If LT is proven for Northern Europe then the hunt will be on for versions of the same thing that developed in other regions e.g. adaptations to wheat, rice or whatever other critical part of the diet was in various other regions over the last 10,000 years. The thing about LT is it's a very visible adaptation but there's likely to be a less visible equivalent of LT among every population.

Among other things these (possibly hundreds of) regional dietary adaptations will have lots of medical consequences.
 
I think the answer to this question can probably be found by reversing the question.

1. Why aren't all humans in Eurasia 100% lactase persistent? After all, it is claimed to be a super-gene and cattle have been kept in Egypt, Mespotamia, China and Southern Europe since...forever.

But LP is not 100% in these areas or even significant. Having been introduced to cattle or having some small percentage of cattle breeder ancestry didn't necessarily improve its distribution beyond the percentage of the ancestral population that contributed the LP genes or the cattle.
Dienekes made a comment similar to this concerning the percentage of LP among Native American and mestizo populations which I found interesting.

There really is no reason to believe that Neolithic Europeans suddenly became LP upon introduction any more than it should have in China IMO. This is probably even more true in NW Europe where the Neolithic arrived late (even being mostly non-LP). While LP could be viewed as beneficial, it is noteworthy that the largest modern human populations by country are generally not LP, so I am skeptical about the super-selectability of this gene.

I think what this suggests is the Chalcolithic immigrants into NW Europe (probably the Bell Beaker) were already 100% LP and the percentage of modern LP in Western Europe most likely directly correlates with the percentage of this ancestry.

I also would not rule out the possibility that the separate LP gene in Southern Algeria, Mali and down into Cameroon are derived from a population movement from the wet Sahara.

There is a big Bell Beaker study out there somewhere. I will be very interested to see what it yields about the mysterious Beakers!

There are two parts to the selectability of LT. The extra calories provided by the gene and the *alternative* calorie supply available. If dairy is only 10% of a diet then the selective pressure is weak. If dairy is 50% of a diet then the selective pressure is very high.

The late arrival of farming to the northwest and the previous reliance on fishing both point at *precisely why* LT might have been super selected in the northwest - because the supply of *alternative calories* was lower in the northwest. If the standard neolithic package wasn't very productive in the northwest (or along the Atlantic coast generally) because of the Atlantic climate such that people were restricted to the coasts to supplement their diet with fishing then a population that developed LT might have been able to colonize away from the coasts. LT would open up an unclaimed ecological niche hence the super-selectability in those regions i.e. along the Atlantic coast and in the northwest i.e. precisely where LT is most common.
 
no in Russia and in Poland they do not drink a lot of milk nor the cheese and it makes fun a bit of me who bought many dairy products and they say to me who if they also put some milk in their coffee then they are sick and it is in Russia where I developed habit to drink black coffee but never they put a drop of milk in tea and I had surprised a lot it (I add that I am Basque)

Getting sick from such small amount of milk, are you sure? For instance Germans use to put milk in coffee too, but they just find it odd to put milk in tea because of the taste. Maybe many Russians and Poles just don't put milk in coffee just because of the taste?
 
I think the answer to this question can probably be found by reversing the question.

1. Why aren't all humans in Eurasia 100% lactase persistent? After all, it is claimed to be a super-gene and cattle have been kept in Egypt, Mespotamia, China and Southern Europe since...forever.

But LP is not 100% in these areas or even significant. Having been introduced to cattle or having some small percentage of cattle breeder ancestry didn't necessarily improve its distribution beyond the percentage of the ancestral population that contributed the LP genes or the cattle.
Dienekes made a comment similar to this concerning the percentage of LP among Native American and mestizo populations which I found interesting.

There really is no reason to believe that Neolithic Europeans suddenly became LP upon introduction any more than it should have in China IMO. This is probably even more true in NW Europe where the Neolithic arrived late (even being mostly non-LP). While LP could be viewed as beneficial, it is noteworthy that the largest modern human populations by country are generally not LP, so I am skeptical about the super-selectability of this gene.

I think what this suggests is the Chalcolithic immigrants into NW Europe (probably the Bell Beaker) were already 100% LP and the percentage of modern LP in Western Europe most likely directly correlates with the percentage of this ancestry.

I also would not rule out the possibility that the separate LP gene in Southern Algeria, Mali and down into Cameroon are derived from a population movement from the wet Sahara.

There is a big Bell Beaker study out there somewhere. I will be very interested to see what it yields about the mysterious Beakers!

Okay, I think we need to review the basic facts. Yes, China has a huge population with a very low rate of lactase persistence. But China also has a very low rate of milk consumption - look at the map. And I see no reason to think that milk consumption was ever frequent there. People don't develop lactase persistence if they're not regular users of cow's milk. Those people in southern Algeria, Mali and parts of Cameroon who have lactase persistence because of a different gene are all people who live in arid savannah areas, which is the only type of terrain where cattle can thrive in warm climates. And their consumption of cow's milk is and has traditionally been very high, whereas there are people who live relatively near them but who live in jungle areas where cattle can't survive, so they seldom or never drink milk and have very low rates of lactase persistence. Lactase persistence has developed only in those areas where there's been a pattern of high milk consumption for a few centuries or millennia. The question I thought we were debating is whether lactase persistence in Europe could have developed initially among Neolithic farmers who also raised cattle or whether it must have developed among pastoralists, such as the invading Indo-Europeans. In other words, how high a level of milk consumption is required to develop lactase persistence and how long does it take to develop.
 
Last edited:
hunter gatherers did not grow cows or sheep so Lactose Persistence deffinitely happened in Europe with the Neolithic Farmers. It was probably one of those genes that got in Europe from the Levant, together with white skin. Everywhere you go in Europe most y-dna is Neolithic or later, so all these new males brought their LP genes with them. The first farming communities were in Anatolia and Levant, next were the Balkans; and R1b, E1b1b, and J, went through the Balkans first.
 
@Greying Wanderer,
Good post about why lactase persistence might have been particularly important in the early Neolithic and Bronze Age in Northwestern Europe.

@El Horsto,
I don't know why Poles and Russians would think a little milk in coffee would make them sick, but I can tell you that Italians only put milk in their coffee in the morning. It's considered bad for the digestion to have milky coffee with big meals. That's why they only drink cappuccino for breakfast and the rest of the day they drink espresso. Tea is with lemon. That doesn't stop them from eating cheese at the end of the meal, however.

I don't doubt at all that by the Medieval period the levels of lactose tolerance as measured by the frequency of the lactase persistence gene were very high in central, northern, and perhaps particularly northwest Europe, approaching the levels today. We have a recent paper to that effect.

The reason that I went to the trouble of doing the research is that the Finnish paper seemed to indicate that actual milk drinking was not as common in the distant past as it subsequently became, and so the high levels were probably the result of the migration of a population that already carried the mutation and consumed milk.

If anyone read the paper on The History of Milk for which I provided a link, for example, Germans drank virtually no liquid milk in 1860, and not very much butter and cheese either. Those figures rose exponentially after that time. I think that might be because of, as the Catalonian paper indicated, increased prosperity, the faster transport provided by the railroads, pasteurization, ultimately refrigeration, and the industrialization of agriculture.

I also don't know where this concept comes from that there was no problem with milk spoilage in northern countries. Yes, if it was drunk virtually straight from the cow, I would think it would usually be safe, but by the 1600's and 1700's and 1800's many people wouldn't be able to get it that way. As the authors here make clear, even as late as the 1700's, milk was considered safe only if it was taken straight from the cow:

"A general eighteenth-century England rule for milk: �if it was not watered, it was probably sour [29]. � However, it was probably digestible if taken from the cow itself immediately before consumption [30]. "
http://www.umich.edu/~ece/student_projects/food/foods.htm


There was a huge problem, for instance, with infants, particularly after industrialization, because women working in the factories weaned their children much too early, and substituted cow's milk that was unhygienic. The spread of tuberculosis, typhoid, scarlet fever and other diseases through contaminated milk was also well known, without mentioning just disease from spoilage. (tuberculosis killed one in four people in those centuries) That's why pasteurization was such a big deal. Even with pasteurization and refrigeration, precautions had to be taken when making bottles of milk for infants. Until the advent of sterilized plastic liners for baby bottles, women had to sterilize baby bottles and plastic nipples endlessly before the bottles could be filled. Before pasteurization and the initiation of such precautions, cow's milk was a leading cause of infant mortality. (I'm not even going to get into the whole issue of how mistaken it is to feed formula to newbornes instead of breast milk. I'm no La Leche League nut, but I do believe that cow milk is for baby cows, and, if at all possible, human milk is for bably humans.)

Those kinds of precautions also have to be taken when making cheese. I too have some experience with farm life since my father's people kept dairy cattle for centuries. I think there were more cattle than people up there. Keeping the cheese making room hygienic and scrupulous care in the cheese making process itself was extremely important, and during their six month or longer winters as well as their rainy, rather cool summers. During earlier periods, this kind of care was not considered as necessary because they didn't make the connection between milk borne illnesses and the handling methods. A two minute google search will bring up hundreds of citations for these facts.

I also think that this bucolic image of all the country people having all this fresh milk at their disposal is one based on very recent history. Ireland may have been different, that I don't know, but the picture drawn by historians is one where the serfs may have taken care of the cattle, but they certainly didn't benefit all that much. If anything, they got the whey and that's about it. The passage I pasted into my post indicated that even in the British Isles, farm workers on prosperous estates only got 7 to 13% of their caloric intake from milk. Bread was the staple of life in the north as well as in the south.

Even in the early 1800's, the agricultural laborers of the Veneto and Lombardia, who had very high levels of lactose tolerance, suffered from numerous diseases of malnutrition including pellagra even though there were many dairy farms in certain areas. The problem was that the dairy products went to the landlords, not to them. (A huge mistake had also been made in moving from making their polenta from wheat or chestnuts to using new world corn.)

Tenant farmers probably, as I said in my prior post, fared better. They certainly did in the parts of Italy that practiced the mesadro system, such as Tuscany and other scattered areas of the north. The land was leased for one third of the farm yield. As a result, mesadri who leased good land ate reasonably well, although there was no waste. As far as the milk from the milk cows is concerned, it was used to make butter and cheese, and the whey was given to pigs. And this is in a part of Italy where most people are lactose tolerant. The same situation would have applied to the American colonial farm with its one cow for the entire family.

Imho, I think that there's a lack of appreciation for the abject poverty in which most Europeans lived until very recent times, and a lack of information about the actual food habits of Europeans until very recent times as well.
 
@kamani

The allele could have come from anywhere. The interesting part is why it spread to fixation along the Atlantic Coast and northwest Europe.


@Angela

"Good post about why lactase persistence might have been particularly important in the early Neolithic and Bronze Age in Northwestern Europe."

Ty. I think it's the critical thing people are missing. The important bit about LT is not that population x had milk (as that was true of lots of populations); the important bit must be (imo) that population x had milk *and didn't have* a lot of other alternatives.

"
The reason that I went to the trouble of doing the research is that the Finnish paper seemed to indicate that actual milk drinking was not as common in the distant past as it subsequently became, and so the high levels were probably the result of the migration of a population that already carried the mutation and consumed milk. If anyone read the paper on The History of Milk for which I provided a link, for example, Germans drank virtually no liquid milk in 1860"

I don't think that follows though. Milk drinking *declined* with urbanization because fewer people lived on farms and milk had to be fresh. Milk drinking increased again with railways.

I think the main source of dietary milk in the Atlantean neolithic was bowls of milk mixed with nuts, berries, grains, acorns etc like muesli or porridge.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Porridge

"Oat porridge, traditional and common in Scotland, English-speaking countries, Nordic countries, and Germany.[citation needed]Oat porridge has been found in the stomachs of 5,000 year old Neolithic bog bodies in Central Europe and Scandinavia."

Bowls of milk mixed with whatever you could grow or forage sounds like a very plausible staple diet for northwest Europe at this time before the neolithic package was adapted for the local climate so I think it was fixed (in those regions) long ago.

Alternatively the first population who developed LT somewhere along the Atlantic coast might haven been able to spread everywhere along that coastline where that ecological niche existed. That may have been what you meant by migration?
 
I'm doubtful about such results, as they don't correlate very well with milk consumption patterns.

see articles by Didier is geneticist. Also, the mtDNA groups H1, H3, T1 are very present in the highest LP population : Basque, English, Irish, Scandinavian.


The authors note (thanks to STR markers) 2 founder effects leading to a fairly homogeneous group of Y1 and Y2 share 'Alpine'. Varieties 'Y1' are dairy breeds it is tempting to see the trace of Y1 banded stand with subsequent migration notament Vikings. The Alpine Y2 pole indicates a cross-strain Auroch most recently with a 'European' but then a strong selection for oriented meat production and animal traction (plow, fork) races. The authors seem to ignore the cultural border crossing to France: north traction Horse (Ardennes etc ...) and to the south by Oxen traction. The meat selection corresponds to the location pastures even if the use of milk (cheese) is also well known. Can be considered as the Alpine Y2 group R1b-U152, probably with a broadcast. The case of the Iberian Y2 seems different and can be connected to a tradition of 'brave bulls' (racing type bulls of Pamplona) probably involving frequent crossings' Auroch.

The analysis of autosomal SNPs 44700 allows authors to firstly find that different strains analyzed clearly divided into 3 groups: Europe, India and Africa. There
So 3 poles domestication. Then, focusing on the French strains and some European strains, it was possible to identify four subgroups


http://www.chezdidier.org/article-la-domestication-de-bos-taurus-107951377.html

http://www.chezdidier.org/article-un-illustre-inconnu-107662828.html


 
Last edited:

This thread has been viewed 98844 times.

Back
Top