We are deviating enormously from the main point of the post.
First of all, we are not talking about modern nations. We are talking about a period in which humans went from having NO SKILL in some field and DEVELOPED IT OUT NOTHING. Basically they went from zero to this:
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this is a Carthagenian ship.
Modern nations are the consequence of later cultural and economic development , as well as a melting pot of people from different ethnic background. Many great american scientists were Jewish and today Asians top the list of brilliant graduates in American Universities. Their success has more to do with the fact that they were living in a country that fostered scientific research and economic development than the fact that they were Jewish. Had they been living in Soviet Russia, another white country, I doubt they would have achieved such success.
Second, I am not attacking some sort of "sacred superiority" (= Nazi crap) of the "aryans", nor I am I suggesting the superiority of some other "race" (= Counter-Nazi crap), I am just a fella interested in noticing fundamental links of human history and linking them to genetics and paths human followed to understand how it is that we are what we are today. And by the way I am a white man living in Europe with 99,7% european genetic background. My interest is entirely non-personal, I am not one of those who uses genetics for self-fullfilment purposes. I frankly don't need that.
Now my observations lead me to believe that there are certain element of fundamental human development that have affected us all as europeans and that were started by populations different than the indo-eurasians.
One of this is naval engineering and seafaring skills. How many centuries or more would have the Myceneans and the Romans have employed to develop a ship so sophisticated as the one the Phoenician were using already in 1400 BC (not to mention a Carthagenian one) if they hadn't basically copied from Minoans and Carthagenians?
Let's assume a Viking 1700 AD ship was entirely the product of Indo-Eurasians (which might not be true, the original scandinavian I component might have helped if my theory was true - so by doing this comparison I am actually employing an hypothesis that goes against my point and to the advantage of yours). Still do you realized that a Viking ship is way less sophisticated than a Phoenician ship that was built more than 3000 years before?
This
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was built more than 3000 years LATER than this:
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After 3000 years the non-mediterreanan Indo-Eurasians still couldn't build a ship as sophisticated as the one the Phoenician/Carghagenia or the Mediterrenean indo-eurasians who copied from them built.
How many years would have they employed if Rome (or the Myceneans) hadn't entirely copied the already sophisticated Carthagenian (or Minoans) one? 4000? 5000? 6000? Without the Chartagenian input into western society through Rome, would have western society be so advanced in naval engeneering as to build ships that would allow spaniards to cross the ocean some 1800 years after the Punic wars? I have somehow strong doubts. If they didn't manage in 3000 years (the Phoenician-Viking Time Gap), why would have they managed in 1800 (the PunicWars-AmericanDiscovery Time Gap)?