"I'm not sure that I understand. If you're I2a M26, how can you not be I2? That's your y haplogroup, the haplogroup of your y line ancestor."
Yes you are right. I am I2a. What I meant is that Y Haplogroups markers do not tell us everything about our DNA. We can inherit a certain Y haplogroup marker but does not mean we belong 100% to that race or ethnicity. We are always mixing with other haplogroups. For example, a Mulatto person with a white father inherits the R1b marker. He then goes on mixing with other Blacks for many generations. Even though some males will inherit R1b it does not mean he belongs to the R1b race or gene pool. Since the vast majority of males in northern Spain are R1b (combining R1a and I1 increases it more so) then my DNA is probably closer to the Celts/Germans than say Basques. I2a has stayed but has been bred out.
Yes, that's partially true, as I said in my prior post. However, I don't think there's any such thing as an "R1b race" or "R1b gene pool" in absolute terms. It seems to me that men who "carry" as well as "carried" R1b signatures
can have and probably
did have different autosomal or total gene pool patterns depending on the time and the areas. We don't have any really ancient R1b yet, but
if it came from somewhere in ancient North Eurasia (as the Mal'ta find might suggest) or the Caspian Sea area more than 11,000? years ago, I think it's highly likely that they were very high in, perhaps exclusively ANE/EHG like, which would be very un-Basque, and un-Spaniard like. Everything I've seen lately, in fact, given the very low ANE levels in the Basques in particular seems to indicate that while they may carry a lot of y-dna R1b, they were actually not as impacted genetically by the "Indo-Europeans" as most of the rest of Europe. (Of course, this is all dependent on R1b originating in these places and at these times, which seems likely given the samples we have now.)
I also don't quite understand where you get this "Germanic" classification for Spaniards of any type. I've yet to see a Spaniard plot anywhere near the Germans, which makes sense given that I think it's highly implausible that a few thousand mostly male invaders are going to change the autosomal signature in any given area where the population numbers in the millions. You need folk movements for that. Even in terms of the French, the major area of overlap seems to be in the southwestern formerly Aquitanian speaking area, and therefore by definition
not an Indo-European or "Celtic" speaking area. (Not coincidentally it's also an area very low in ANE.) That's all been clear since the days of Novembre et al and it's still the case today.
See also:
http://4.bp.blogspot.com/-_6XAIk6ygtg/Tcqj7WCS_jI/AAAAAAAADsU/WJDG6R2XnH0/s1600/waeu.png
None of the fiddling around that has gone on changes the basic positioning autosomally of the modern European, indeed, the West Eurasian populations.