Quote Originally Posted by Melancon View Post
Prove that I am wrong though? Prove that R1 individuals weren't originally Negroid? If people of Y-DNA I2 or C6 were Negroid; why wouldn't R1 and it's descendants be Negroid too? R1a and R1b? Obviously they were Negroids in Central Asia if you understand logic. Both haplogroups emerged/mutated at the same time. Yes, there were Negroids in Central Asia ... all logic points to that.

Did you know that some Tibetan or Chinese people also have R1b in their population too? But it is more rarer; than say Y-DNA O or N1b or N1c ... this is because there were migrations of negroid R1 people that evolved among other Negroids of Y-DNA O, C, N, Q whom eventually became Mongoloids and East Asians.

I don't need to prove that the original R1 (R1a and R1b) peoples were Negroids ... because they obviously were! All logic points to it. There is no other available explanation. If Mesolithic Europeans who have Y-DNa I1 or I2 have dark skin ... then you can bet that the Central Asians had dark skin as well.
I don't have to prove you're wrong. You're the one proposing a theory, so you have to present evidence for it. Surely you know that?

Who says that YDna I2 or C6 people were Negroid? You must stop using terms you don't understand or you won't be taken at all seriously. That Paleolithic Europeans were still probably dark skinned doesn't mean they looked "Negroid". Even if they looked like this most recent reconstruction, they didn't look Negroid.

Regardless, that was 24,000 years ago. What does that have to do with what people living in the Levant looked like 6,000 or 4,000 years ago when the movement into West Africa would have taken place?

Here's just another example of what those people would have looked like...(I don't really need to state this was carved in dark stone do I?)

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