This is the last time I will respond to your posts on this matter. It's a waste of time.
Nowhere do you provide any actual empirical evidence for your claims about the number, condition, or ethnic origin of the slaves in the area of Tuscany, or anywhere in Italy for that matter. The trivial matter of "slave" names has been sufficiently addressed. American slave owners didn't write down their reasons for naming slaves Homer and Venus. However, we're supposed to be intelligent enough not to draw the inference that they were necessarily Greek.
You obviously have not actually read the entire Hellenthal et al paper, , which I today read for the second time, or you would know that they didn't opine about the source of any "new" gene flow into Tuscany in the period starting in 522 AD. Given that all historical evidence indicates that the major new gene flow came from northern and western Europe in the form of actual folk migrations from Gaul, central Europe, and then northern Europe in the form of the Lombards, perhaps they didn't feel it was necessary to even address your bizarre interpretation of the event.
Any other interpretation is groundless and would have us believe that prior to that date all the "Tuscans" were 100% northern and western European.
Also, if you had read the paper, you would know that rather than deprecating IBD analysis, in their discussion of the ethnogenesis of eastern Europeans they specifically state that their work supports the findings of IBD analysis.
Of course, if you claim you did read it, am I supposed to infer you deliberately distorted the findings? I'd be happy to accept that, because then I can give you another infraction.