Possible Post-Neolithic Immigration Flow From the Fertile Crescent

[Drac II]

could this 'fertile crescent' component simply be the consequence of Arabic-Islamic rule during the middle ages in Malta and southern Italy ?

Not likely, except if you go by the results suggested by studies like Fiorito et al. for southern Italy, which imply that the admixture there is from medieval times, while for the rest of Italy is closer to Etruscan as well as during Roman times.

 

[Sile]

Maciamo,you make good point that J2 could have come in Southern Europe 1200 B.C around the time of the sea peoples,if we asume that during this time was really a migration or as you explained the subjected could have took arms against their overlords,it seems that there were two migrations in what is today Greece or Southern Europe and probably spread more north?if we even take the Greek mythology and myth,their claim of ancestry on Danaus(Daanans or Achaeans) that were part of the Mycenaean Greece they trace their ancestry in Egypt with some myths further to Hyksos people,which were expelled around 1580 to 1550 BC reign of Ahmose in Egypt,Mycenaean civilization is asumed to have lasted from 1600–1100 BCE the years match,Hyksos origin is difficult to explain but they were prevalent Semitic ancestry with maybe some Hurrian but Indo-European component is difficult to explain,however this go against Indo-European language hypothesis in Greece and the previous inhabitants,Semitic component in Minoans is easier to explain their language is not Indo-European either,but can they spread this haplogroup from one island? the question however remain open for this as well the language hypothesis,origin of the Greeks and previous inhabitants there.

there was no semetic language in anatolia..............the languages of the Hittites, Hatti and Hurrians and their thousands upon thousands of clay text tablets have been studied by countless numbers of linguists and no semetic has been found in these anatolian writings

If as you say, minoans where semetic , then their origin as per recent historical studies would via Iraq ( elamite/sumer?) and originally south-asia ( india-pakistan ) and not from anatolia.

 

[Milan]

there was no semetic language in anatolia..............the languages of the Hittites, Hatti and Hurrians and their thousands upon thousands of clay text tablets have been studied by countless numbers of linguists and no semetic has been found in these anatolian writings

If as you say, minoans where semetic , then their origin as per recent historical studies would via Iraq ( elamite/sumer?) and originally south-asia ( india-pakistan ) and not from anatolia.

Minoan is unclassified language,Minoans were on Crete haven't said is Semitic only guessing of the prevalent haplogroups and their flow in the period discussed above,it is neither Semitic or Indo-European,they were traders mostly with East Mediterranean cultures they must have had some "lingua franca" for communication among them,later came new people this culture start from 3650 to 1400 BCE,they were overthrown by Mycenaean Greeks.

 

[Sile]

Minoan is unclassified language,Minoans were on Crete haven't said is Semitic only guessing of the prevalent haplogroups and their flow in the period discussed above,it is neither Semitic or Indo-European,they were traders mostly with East Mediterranean cultures they must have had some "lingua franca" for communication among them,later came new people this culture start from 3650 to 1400 BCE,they were overthrown by Mycenaean Greeks.

The 2014 israeli digs at Tell es-Safi and Megiddo on the philistine people shows they have minoan pottery and spoke a cypro-minoan language called Ashkelon . they also stated these philistines are originally eastern minoan people who settled in the southern levant after the collapse of minoa/crete. Clearly this is also non-semetic language .
They also assume that because they found no evidence of cremations or graves, that the philistines buried their dead at sea, like the minoans

 

[Taranis]

Minoan is unclassified language,Minoans were on Crete haven't said is Semitic only guessing of the prevalent haplogroups and their flow in the period discussed above,it is neither Semitic or Indo-European,they were traders mostly with East Mediterranean cultures they must have had some "lingua franca" for communication among them,later came new people this culture start from 3650 to 1400 BCE,they were overthrown by Mycenaean Greeks.

Minoan itself was for sure not a Semitic language. Semitic languages have the distinct feature of having consonantal roots (which is why you can write the consonants alone and the meaning of a word isn't lost - which is a feature of the original Phoenician alphabet). I'm not ruling out that one of the other "pre-Greek" languages spoken elsewhere in "Greece" at the time were in fact Semitic, as Greek has a good number of early Semitic loans to it. As an example, the words for 'wine' ((ϝ)οινος) and 'gold' (χρυσος) are likely borrowed from a Semitic source. Alternatively, these are borrowings from (Bronze Age) contact with Semitic-speaking peoples (which is also plausible).

 

[Hauteville]

There is. According to Eurogene's CHG_K8, there's post-Neolithic West Asian ancestry in all of Europe. It must have brought most of the J and E1b in Europe. The EEF+WHG+Steppe doesn't perfectly explain European genetics. The fourth ancestor is "Mysterious West Asians".

That map is questionable and it was made by Tolan on Anthrogenica used Eurasia K10CHG of the Kurd guy, actually it does not match with what the most recent studies say.
http://www.anthrogenica.com/showthread.php?6197-Possible-fertile-crescent-admixture-in-South-Europe