Yetos
Regular Member
- Messages
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- Location
- Makedonia
- Ethnic group
- Makedonian original
- Y-DNA haplogroup
- G2a3a
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- X2b
I would actually agree that the term 'pre-Greek' as a whole is better (and I would also agree with your point that the labelings of "Eteocretan" and "Eteocypriot" are fairly arbitrary, but then again, note how technically the names "Hittite" and "Tocharian" are just as arbitrary), but that proves my point: there was no homogenous pre-Greek language.
Greek is not a language,
but a linguistic family,
so according the 'era' you can find another Greek as primary,
but that does not mean that the other 'family members' did not exist,
so we know that Mycenean was a kind of proto-Greek,
but we also know that Greek started to be spoken away from Mycenae, at today NW parts of Greece,
considering that lake Lychnis Λυχνις which today is not in Greece, (Ochrida, Ohrid Ωχρις) was a an area of proto-Greek spoken,
and also adding that Arcadians might originate from Arzawa-Assuwa, you can understand how evolution of language happened,
just think that Aeolians had aspirations that today is found in other IE languages,
anyway, by understanding the earlier form Διας-ος, compare with Brygian Tios, and then with attic Θεος,
but Makedonians kept the older Δια, although with koine, the word stabilize to Θεος,
so by seeing Greek as only one language, you will have wrong results,
but by understanding that Greek was a linguistic family that at North was close to Brygian, and at south evolute to Mycenean, and also add the unknown, yet easy to find some Pelasgian, and the Arzawa/Assuwa adds/mix
then you have we know about Greek language,
for example from Homer till Herodotus how many centuries?
and from Herodotus till Xenophon which is a typical pure South Greek writer, how many?
in 3 centuries we have Homer to Herodotus, and 3 centuries from Herodotus to Xenophon, and we loose numbers, cases, voices, aparemphat, etc
and yet in Makedonia 8 centuries after Homer kept a primitive Greek dialect,
and 3000 years after Homer we found that Pontic Greek original uses +1 aparemphat than Homer, and older syntax of dative case than koine, when rest Greek have only 1 aparemphat and 4 cases today,
my grand mother still say, να σοι δωσου μιά σ'ην κεβαλή, as ancient Makedonians, not κεφαλη which is accepted 2500 years now,
a pontic Greek will say διγω σε εναν σ'ο κιφαλ',
a Cretan will say να σου δωκω μια στην κεφαλη
α modern one να σε/σου δωσω μια στο κεφαλι
and at koine would be, σοι δωσω μιαν εις την κεφαλην
so some older styles still remained milleniums
it is like comparing Norwegian with Austrian, and say I am not sure there was a homogenous Germanic language