Four questions for those who still believe in prehistoric Slavs and other fairy tales

Goths and Getae who were they?
The early authors;
Jordanes,Isidore of Seville, Orosius, Philostorgius, Procopius,Yeronim Claudius etc thought that this people are the same,their name is variation of one and the same;
Jordanes who was Goth himself give them Getae (Thracian) history.

The amusing issue is that the earlier authors (Strabo, Ptolemy, Tacitus, Pliny) think of them as two distinct people. For Strabo (book 7, chapter 3), Getai (Γεται) and Dakoi (Δακοι) are synonyms. The same is the case with Pliny (Natural History, book 4, chapter 80). The Getae were a (clearly non-Germanic) people living near the mouth of the Danube, while the Goths/Gotones were a Germanic people living somewhere in the farthest east of Germania, east from the Lugians (Strabo's Geograhy, book 7, chapter 3 and Tacitus' Germania, section 44).

Even much later authors about creation of Gothic alphabet;
According to 17th century scholar Carolus Lundius (sv) Ulfilas created the Gothic alphabet based on the Getae's alphabet, with minor alterations.

Where is your archaeological/epigraphic evidence for the very existence of this 'Getic' alphabet? It is very clear that the Gothic alphabet was a new creation based of Latin, Greek and Runic. I wouldn't take Carolus Lundius' word for gospel without further evidence.

Zalmoxis bear in mind a Getae god mentioned since Herodotus.

Note how the name "Zalmoxis" is decisively not Germanic, and neither are the place names around the lower Danube (think of the typical Dacian -dava ending). It should be clear that Dacian and Biblical Gothic are two altogether different languages.
Why in ancient times there was so much "confusing" and miss understadings,while we in more modern times came to understand everything about "our" ancestors?

Because the later authors were confused about it and projected into the past what they knew?

There is no evidence that would support this idea that there's a direct linguistic continuity from the Getae to the Goths to the medieval South Slavs. We're talking about three different linguistic groups.
 

The amusing issue is that the earlier authors (Strabo, Ptolemy, Tacitus, Pliny) think of them as two distinct people. For Strabo (book 7, chapter 3), Getai (Γεται) and Dakoi (Δακοι) are synonyms. The same is the case with Pliny (Natural History, book 4, chapter 80). The Getae were a (clearly non-Germanic) people living near the mouth of the Danube, while the Goths/Gotones were a Germanic people living somewhere in the farthest east of Germania, east from the Lugians (Strabo's Geograhy, book 7, chapter 3 and Tacitus' Germania, section 44).

Please tell me how Gothi become Goutones (Strabo),Gutones (Pliny) Gotones(Ptolemy),to me this two names arent's synonyms,even Getai and Gothi aren't but they are equoted all of the time as one and same,can you tell me which ancient author equote Gothi and Gotones by contrast?
Plus does anyone mention migration of the Gotones in lower Danube,Moesia or Thrace?
Getae by contrast are indegenous in lower Danube,they weren't migrating from anywhere.


Where is your archaeological/epigraphic evidence for the very existence of this 'Getic' alphabet? It is very clear that the Gothic alphabet was a new creation based of Latin, Greek and Runic. I wouldn't take Carolus Lundius' word for gospel without further evidence.
I have no such proof,can you find a Gothic language inscribed on stone or church in places settled by them,as i find for Glagolitic or Cyrilic for example in place settled by Sclavenes?


Note how the name "Zalmoxis" is decisively not Germanic, and neither are the place names around the lower Danube (think of the typical Dacian -dava ending). It should be clear that Dacian and Biblical Gothic are two altogether different languages.
Indeed but Zalmoxis is mentioned by Jordanes,the same author a Goth himself,just as first mythical homeland of Scandza a Getic not Gothic homeland is mentioned by him which somehow we "equote" with Scandinavia,why we take that to literate then?
By the way since when name Scandinavia is used as such in literary sources?
There is no evidence that would support this idea that there's a direct linguistic continuity from the Getae to the Goths to the medieval South Slavs. We're talking about three different linguistic groups.
I won't disagree there apart from equoting in ancient sources,im just questioning.
 
I disagree. As I said, the letter Beta (Ββ) was indeed pronounced as /v/ in the Middle Ages, but in spelling convention, people would just substitute /b/ as "v" (β). The convention to spell /b/ as 'mp' (μπ) is a modern convention. One example that comes to my mind, even if it is from (very) early Byzantine Greek, would be Procopius (in his Gothic War, book 1, chapter 15), who spells Ravenna as Rabenna (Ραβεννα) and Benavente as Benebenton (Βενεβεντον). For the latter, it would be intuitive (from the perspective of modern Greek) to render both Betas as "v", but in the name Benavente, the first Beta clearly represents a /b/, and the second represents a /v/. If you find one example where a /b/ in a foreign name is rendered /mp/ in medieval Greek (closer in time to the Volga route), please show us.



And here I thought we were talking about Varangians (i.e. Norse). Also, stop applying the phonology of modern Greek (Gamma as /j/) retroactively to medieval Greek. It doesn't work that way.

I have to say that you are right in the sense that 'b' could have been used for both 'v' and 'b' in a foreign word (but only 'v' for the rest, and using μπ for b wasn't a modern convention so what I said was partly wrong). In that particular text there is 'γγ' for 'g' (presumably) though (Iγγώρ) and if we accept the Germanic etymologies there is ντ for 'nd'. In the text there is one "ὁ ∆αυὶδ ὁ Μάμπαλις" but Ι am not sure what sound it represents because it can be a Caucasian (?) word.


The word 'Γελανδρί' in the text is supposed to be a 'sclavenic' word and they included it in Rus' words. But they didn't accept doing that but instead decided to twist what the text says. What was the pronunciation of Γ? In modern greek it's γ before a,o,u and j before e, i. Was it γ? Ι guess you can say that it was also used for g and ɟ in foreign names (and maybe even ʑ I would add) but there is one example of γγ for g in that particular text.

In the Introduction of the Russian Primary Chronicle translated and edited by Samuel Hazzard Cross and Olgerd P. Sherbowitz-Wetzor they write (p. 42):

The third is named only in Rus' as Γελανδρί with the remark that it is translated in to Slavic as ήχος φραγμού

That's not true. He doesn't give a Rus word and then translate it to Slavic but he gives a Slavic word (a word from that particular dialect)

And they didn't do only this, they change another passage too. 'Μεγάλη λίμνην αποτελεί' became 'Μεγάλη δίνην αποτελεί'. Τhe big lake became big wave, because that appeared to them better for something named 'wave rapid'.

And of course the names of the Rus' were 'normalised'.
 
I'd like to note that it is not relevant what they called themselves (even if I concede that the "speaker" versus "mute" dichotomy is quite suggestive).
I won't agree with this,cause word "nem" (mute,dumb) could as well come from the Germanic tribe "Nemetes",it is how Germanic people are called "Nemtsi",because of given no clear cognates in IE languages i think is of folk etymology,just as in western language the word "slave" is.Nemeto however come to be a Celtic sacred place.Also we do use other words for such things.
For instance "dumb"-glup from gluh (deaf) and so on.. has Baltic cognate.

By contrast "slovo" is always translated as "logos" in church usage as in Greek,"slovo" might had the similar connotation with Greek logos.
I have good comparisons;
Take the words for blessing;
Greek;
Eulogos
from εὖ ‎(eû, “good”) + λόγος ‎(lógos, “utterance, narrative”)
Slavic;
Blagoslov
from Blago(good)+slovo("word" or utterance)
Greek
Astrologist ‎(ástron, “star, planet, or constellation”) +λόγος ‎(lógos)

Slavic
Zvezdoslovac attested in 17th century south-slavic zvezda(star)+ slovo the same.
Slovo bozije is equivalent to Logos of god again.

Apart from that as Curta noted both of them arose in different political and historical circumstances,to compare they arose by contrast is not so convincing just guesing,and is not good to take a guess for truth.
 
Since u mentioned Nemtsi from nem, the Albanian word for a mute person is memeci (memetsi).
 
I'm not surprised that such claims are supported by someone identifying himself as Yugoslav. It is a artificial identity made up by communist party in order to repress nationalism. Nota bene, only 5% of population identified as Yugoslav. Yugoslavia in that form ceased to exist in 1991. I'm saying this as ethnic Slav, Croat (Croatia was part of Yugoslavia). Also Slavic language doesn't exist. The one he is speaking is either Slovenian or more probably Serbian (not enough words were given)
 

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