I get the sense that a lot of effort was expended to get the results from this new method to match the results from their prior paper, and also to match a long held belief by a number of researchers that the Ashkenazi population was formed by the admixture of Jewish men and the Italian women (probably northern Italian women) whom they married and converted.
I'm not sure they're correct that the admixture was between a Middle Eastern population and a southern European population if by southern European they mean Italians and Greeks (
Bergamo, Tuscany, Abruzzi, Sicily and Greece are the listed populations that were used).
I don't see how it's possible for 50-60 % of the genome of the modern Ashkenazim to be from these people less than 2000 years ago and
yet there is almost no IBD sharing with any of them. If the Ashkenazim stem from a southern European population then perhaps it is the Iberians, as there's much more sharing between Ashkenazi Jews and Iberians. (Unless the sharing with the Iberians is mostly gene flow from Jews into Iberian populations during the Moorish occupation?) Strangely, they never modeled the admixture with Iberians.
It's either that or Jewish men arriving in eastern Europe with very few wives and marrying a lot of gentile women before endogamy was enforced.
I also don't understand why the Ashkenazim share more IBD with Eastern Europeans not only in the last 1000 years or so, but also, presumably, 2000 years ago, and why, in the earlier time period they don't share all that much with Levantine populations?
I'd very much like for someone else to redo the IBD analysis on these specific samples, using both their methods and others.
IBD analysis of Ashkenazi Jews-Xue et al.PNG
I have no idea what you're getting at with your first paragraph. Why wouldn't they include northern Italians? They tried to get a
combined reference sample that would do a good job of covering all or at least most of Italian genetic variation so that they'd have a better chance of finding some IBD sharing. Even with samples from northern Italy, Tuscany, central Italy and the south, they couldn't find it, but they found it with Iberians even though the total number of samples was less.
As to the admixture utilities posted at gedmatch, and the Oracle results often provided, I'm afraid you seem to be a bit confused about how they should be interpreted. The fact that two groups of people share similar percentages of ancestry from very ancient populations doesn't at all mean that they necessarily share any gene flow in thousands of years. They might, but not necessarily. Nor are possible Oracle "admixtures" meant to be taken literally. This is as mistaken as to assume that because two groups of people cluster near one another on a PCA it means that they share any genes at all in even the last 10,000 years.
You might want to take a look at this article about
how not to use Admixture. Even academic authors don't seem to be aware of some of the pitfalls. I posted it here as I think it's very helpful in interpreting or not
misinterpreting Admixture results.
http://www.eupedia.com/forum/threads...ted-Cautiously
The truth of the matter, of which many people seem to be totally unaware, is that with any of these analyses, including the ones using dstats like those done by Fire-Haired, if you plug in enough different populations you can get a number of patterns that are a "reasonable" fit, so you can prove just about anything you wish. That's why people have to be wary of the conclusions of even academic papers until they've really thought it through or tried to reproduce the results themselves. I'm waiting for some of the modelers in chief to do that with this paper. When hobbyists are involved, it's buyer beware, in my opinion.
One specific reason that I'm not spending too much time on this is all the calculations are, of course, based on modern genomes. The computations are based, for example, on modern Middle Easterners like Jordanians, Palestinians, Druze etc. However, how similar are these modern groups to the Jews of the first centuries of the Common Era, the period roughly corresponding to the time of the Roman Empire? From the current Lazardis et al paper, the ancient Levantine Bronze Age sample plots among modern Saudis and Egyptians. If the Jews of that era were close to them, then the Ashkenazim are perhaps even
more "European" than the authors of this paper propose. What if, however, there has been additional SSA and other genetic intrusion into the Levant since the Jews were scattered? Then, the Ashkenazim may be
less "European" admixed.
So, for me, I'm not looking for ultimate answers from this paper. More important to me is whether their criticism of some of these programs for use on southern Europeans, and Jews, is justified, because the tools will be used on ancient dna as well.