Anatolian Hypothesis: Lord Renfrew still a partial holdout

I really fail to see how the recent studies on the Mycenaeans and Minoans can reinforce Renfrew's increasingly out of touch hypotheses. There we have a Neolithic Greece with no steppe component at all, a Bronze Age Greece where the Minoans traditionally held to be more indigenous and non-IE really appear as a mix of EEF+(extra) CHG without any steppe admixture, and suddenly we know that the Mycenaeans are, out of "sheer coincidence", the only Bronze Age Greeks with a minor but noticeable steppe admixture (and they are certainly not the first Proto-Greeks to arrive in Greece, but a people already totally diluted into the numerous Pre-Hellenic population). To me these data alone make it extremely improbable that Proto-Greeks had nothing to do with the Pontic-Caspian steppe. They were probably not direct immigrants from the steppes, but were certainly related to the Yamna horizon, either in the Balkans or, less likely, in the South Caucasus evidently admixed with the indigenous peoples there. To me, at least, the findings that Mycenaeans were only ~10% steppe-like perfectly fits what I had imagined for Proto-Greeks: a Balkanic people (Ezero? Cotofeni? Vucedol?) who had a heavy Pre-IE substrate both in genetics and in language and had undergone a deep process of cultural shift by elite dominance . as expressed after 2011 by Greenhill Gray Atkinson Languages often have synonyms for very common animals in the given culture of that society. In the Northeast of Brazil, where donkeys were a major livestock for transport and agricultural techniques, we have "jumento", "jegue", "asno" and other words. It's perfectly normal. See how easily "equus" was replaced by "caballus" in all Romance languages. Also, the Greek "hippos" doesn't come directly from PIE *hek'wos, it would've become a different word if it had followed the regular sound changes from PIE to Greek. I think it may well have come from another IE language that once bordered Proto-Greek. Also, the same root *hek'wos is found in the vast majority of IE groupings, including the Northern ones. The Germanic root that gave us "horse" comes from an affectionate euphemism meaning basically "the swift one", but still you had "eoh" in Old English and "jór" in Icelandic directly descended from *hek'wos. So, it doesn't look like the northern and the southern branches were all that different between themselves. Greek actually shares more isoglosses with "northern" groups like Indo-Iranian (once the main group spoken in the steppes) and Balto-Slavic than other IE branches.


Plz read my post #52
 
That is one situation. Right to the east of these Northern Greek areas, you have Turkey where a minor East Asian+Central Asian component (presumably Turkic influx) of at most 20% was capable to shift the language of one of the most populated regions of the world in the Middle Ages Basic rule of linguistics: if the words look way too similar in meaning and in phonetic form for branches that are supposed to have diverged thousands of years ago, the odds are that you're dealing with a very widespread loanword. "Castan", "kastanie", "chestnut" are all too similar, there doesn't seem to have happened a lot of regular and historic sound changes there. A root that in Romance gave "castagna, castaña" would probably be something like *hasten, *hassen in Germanic. In fact, as you can look in the dictionaries, "chestnut" comes from "chesten, chestaine", the French derivative of "castanea", which by itself is the Latin loanword borrowed from Greek "kastánea". These words didn't come from Neolithic/Chalcolithic PIE, but from much later.


Ygorcs

we do not speak about the word computer here
we speak about a tree that was in Europe
and people, either Neolithic either IE eat it and new it before Aristoteles made his taxonomy and before Roman empire
 
I'm not following you at all. This dynasty was founded by a man who kicked the Hyksos OUT of Egypt. If he was R1b, then perhaps it was a situation like that of Somerled. I don't see how it matters.

Why bother testing him and not release the results in an official/peer reviewed paper? Maybe he is not even R1b, that is speculation, he maybe of a different ydna group altogether, maybe an Afrocentrist dream come true, why deny them some joy. Of course they will have to do a 180 with all the negative profiling about his looks and health.
No one has ever suggested, to my knowledge, that the Egyptians invented the chariot. They certainly improved it immensely, however.

They were not able to defeat the Hittites with their improved chariots, and according to you one of the 19 dynasty famed Pharoahs. What more did they need.

Nor is the might of Egypt or its importance to the world down to one technology. This is 1000 years after the building of the Pyramids, and before the great reigns of Ramses.
Still you provide no Afro-Asiatic root associated with the wheels and wagons and chariots word for a very basic technology.
It should be obvious to anyone who has studied any history whatsoever that once an improvement was made, the knowledge spread like wildfire. That's they way it goes.
I don't see any Egyptian type pyramids or the technology or science that was used to make them anywhere but Egypt. If you know let us in on it.
It was a mixed blessing. The fiscal drain of building these chariots, getting mounts and training the men has been suggested as one cause of the Bronze Age Collapse.
Again more speculation, we simply do not know, and unless we test and release the results of those tests we might never know, was weather global
cooling,plague, we don't know.

When will this mania to take over the glory of other civilizations for the aggrandizement of steppe peoples end?
You forgot about the fine examples found in United Nations of their contribution. That's okay I doubt you know what they are.


For the first time in my life I'm in sympathy with the "New Left". This is cultural appropriation on a truly gigantic scale.
Just more political-profiling and cultural-profiling. I think it would be nice to give the linguistic/culture/ tradition that allowed us to communicate and express our ideas to one another a brief mention. Modern Intellectual property laws are written in their language, legal laws are written in their language and peace treaties. Just show me one post, just one where you give your cultural appropriation of due recognition to the Germanic tribe called the Angles, or their customs and traditions.
 
Silesian:Why bother testing him and not release the results in an official/peer reviewed paper? Maybe he is not even R1b, that is speculation, he maybe of a different ydna group altogether, maybe an Afrocentrist dream come true, why deny them some joy. Of course they will have to do a 180 with all the negative profiling about his looks and health.

Are you feeling quite all right? Why am I to blame if the results weren't released? Of course they should be released. What do I have to do with Afrocentrists? I barely know who they are. Plus, Ramses already carries an African lineage, doesn't he? What's the big deal?

They were not able to defeat the Hittites with their improved chariots, and according to you one of the 19 dynasty famed Pharoahs. What more did they need.

I think you need to go on Wiki and get a simple timeline of Egyptian history. It's not "according to me"; it's according to history and archaeology.

Tut and Akhenaten were members of the 18th dynasty, yes? That dynasty was founded by Ahmose I, who finished the work of EXPELLING the Hyksos. That's why I implied it would be very ironic if this dynasty carried an R1b y presumably from the Hyksos. Get it now? It was the 15th, 16th and 17th dynasties, the Third Intermediate period, which were contemporary with the Hyksos. Of course, there's a dispute as to whether Thutmose I, who continued the dynasty, was actually a male line descendant of Ahmose I. I suppose he could have been descended from some Delta left over male line of ultimate Hyksos origin. Or, if Tut was indeed R1b, maybe it had moved down into Egypt hundreds of years before. These things are murky, which is why I don't get too worked up about them.

As for chariots, the earliest Egyptian improvements to chariots of which I'm aware took place around 1500 BC, which would be the beginning of the 18th dynasty. There were six excellent specimens in the tomb of Tutankhamen.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chariotry_in_ancient_Egypt

They continued to improve them until they were the marvels used by Ramses II, of a totally different dynasty, in the epic battle of Kadesh in 1274 BC against the Hittites, who could have had nothing to do with the ancestry of the 18th dynasty, since it was centuries before. As I already said, the y of one of these subsequent pharaohs is "E", and may be a Sub-Saharan "E".

As to who won the Battle of Kadesh, it depends upon whom you believe, or whose account you believe, but at worst, from the Egyptian perspectivem it was a draw, if not the victory they claimed. Since I don't look at history and pick winners or losers based on some agenda, I don't care who won or lost. Why would I care? I'm not Egyptian or Hittite.

Some things seem to be part of the consensus however.

"The Hittites, who believed their enemies to be totally routed, had stopped to plunder the Egyptian camp and, in doing so, became easy targets for Ramesses' counterattack. Ramesses' action was successful in driving the looters back towards the Orontes river and away from the Egyptian camp,[32] while in the ensuing pursuit, the heavier Hittite chariots were easily overtaken and dispatched by the lighter, faster, Egyptian chariots.[13]"

So, yes, their chariots were better.

Still you provide no Afro-Asiatic root associated with the wheels and wagons and chariots word for a very basic technology.

For goodness' sakes, you're going to go back to the invention of the wheel? That's way before the period you started discussing. Can we focus here? Use the search engine. All the latest research indicates that the wheel was invented either in the Near East or "Old Europe". When are you people going to admit that nothing is original to the steppe except the domestication of the horse and perhaps the spoked wheel all the way over in Sintashta. If you want to really get into the chariots you should read up about the role the Mitanni played in all of this. As to the steppe people, in the beginning they got everything from other people with whom they came into contact: herding and the animals to herd, farming, metallurgy, everything, maybe even the damn kurgans. There's just no dispute about these things any longer. Why is that so terrible? The Japanese have borrowed almost everything too and done quite well off it.

I don't see any Egyptian type pyramids or the technology or science that was used to make them anywhere but Egypt. If you know let us in on it.

Don't be childish: different points for tools spread, different domesticates, flora and fauna, and techniques to farm them spread, different firing techniques and glazes for pottery spread, different forms for metallurgy, including furnace technology, spread, different and better sword making techniques spread, and yes, different improvements for chariots spread. It became like an ancient version of the arms war. If you're going to argue about something like this, you have to have done the reading required.

You forgot about the fine examples found in United Nations of their contribution. That's okay I doubt you know what they are.

Getting nasty now about other ethnicities? I don't think that's such a good idea. You really want to compare what your people have contributed of such great import to European or world civilization in the last 5000 years, after this mass inflow of Indo-European genes, compared to the total achievements of the Egyptians? You sure you want to go down that road? It also never makes sense to me to be casting stones at other people when every group has things of which to be ashamed.

Just more political-profiling and cultural-profiling. I think it would be nice to give the linguistic/culture/ tradition that allowed us to communicate and express our ideas to one another a brief mention. Modern Intellectual property laws are written in their language, legal laws are written in their language and peace treaties. Just show me one post, just one where you give your cultural appropriation of due recognition to the Germanic tribe called the Angles, or their customs and traditions.

This is just silly, Silesian. If by Angles you mean their partial descendants the English, I'm an avid admirer of a lot of things about English civilization. In fact, I've been accused of being a bit of an Anglophile. I'll just mention three of the most important.

One: I have profound respect for the tradition of English jurisprudence and law in particular, the common law tradition, the jury system, and on and on. I could wax prolific about it.

Two: it is to the English in great part, but not only, that we owe the modern development of democracy and I am profoundly grateful for it. I could wax prolific about that as well, starting with the Magna Carta, moving all the way through things like the Glorious Revolution etc. etc.

Three: I think English literature is one of the most important contributions of any country to world culture.

If you're talking about things from the culture of the Angles and Saxons specifically, like trial by battle, or fire, or the death of a Celt being worth less money than the death of a Saxon or Angle, then no, I'm not a fan. You can't possibly think there's any comparison in terms of their achievements and those of people like the ancient Egyptians? It's ludicrous. I will grant you, of course, that Alfred's reign was of importance.

That should do, given this is totally off-topic.

You know, I never start this ethnic bashing stuff, and, in fact, I find it abhorrent. If there is anything of which I'm sure, it's that there are good and bad, intelligent and stupid, people in every ethnic group, and I have friends, good friends in most, including yours. However, people who dish it out should be willing to take it. I know I'm not Egyptian, but since we don't have any here I'll take it upon myself to even the playing field. I don't believe in turning the other cheek about this or anything else. I believe in hitting back hard so the bullies think better of it next time. Don't degrade or hold other groups up to ridicule and it won't be done to you.
 
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Do you really think two separate admixture events is possible for Greece? That EHG ancestry somehow came to Greece unadmixed? Minoans and even Peloponnese Neolithic already had CHG ancestry, yet they were not an IE people. Looking at the Bronze age balkans we can see the trickling down of Yamnaya ancestry increasingly over time, pure EHG somehow arriving in Greece on its own doesn't make any sense.

I avoid talking about what I think. Unadmixed with what? Unadmixed with Iran Neolithic, theoretically yes. Btw, also not 'on its own'.

I don't know what language Peloponnese Neolithic people spoke and concerning the Linear A language(s) the theories that have been proposed are: 1) Anatolian, 2) Greek or Greek-like, 3) Semitic, 4) distinct IE clade, 5) Indo-Iranian, 6) Tyrsenian etc.

The steppe-like admixture that increases doesn't mean anything, if IE languages were already in Balkans and Central Europe before the expansions from the steppe.
 
Silesian, I'm pretty sure it's possible to design a pyramid and figure out the math involved as well as the steps needed to carry out its construction (involving quite a bit of brain power) without having to rely on a chariot. You have to focus on what makes building a pyramid impressive.
 
Also, the Greek "hippos" doesn't come directly from PIE *hek'wos, it would've become a different word if it had followed the regular sound changes from PIE to Greek. I think it may well have come from another IE language that once bordered Proto-Greek. Also, the same root *hek'wos is found in the vast majority of IE groupings, including the Northern ones.

What are they? What are the laws that give eoh in Old English?

"hippos" was the Attic Greek word, the word was different in Mycenean and other dialects (*ikwos -> ikkos in Aeolic).
There is one thing that is unexplained based on the reconstructed word (the /i/).

If you know the relevant sound laws for Greek I have a question to make.
 
I think there should be more attention to investigate, maybe linking it with population genetics, the linguistic hypothesis (I'd read an article on it months ago) that PIE was the result of heavy grammatical influence and vocabulary borrowing imposed by a language related to the Northwestern Caucasian branch onto an EHG/Eurasian Steppe language. It really did make sense to me on many linguistic (like supposed links of PIE with Northwestern Caucasian and also a bit with Kartvelian), historical and genetic grounds (heavy influx of CHG into a previous EHG population). It also could maybe explain why Neolithic Pontic-Caspian Steppe is mainly a R1a and I2 landscape, but R1b increasingly appeared later. Still in the present age the highest diversity of R1b is in North/Northeastern Anatolia and the Southern Caucasus, and there is a clear concentration of R1b in that region compared to the neighboring Anatolian and Caucasian areas.


My issue with this is what group would have brought R1b from the Caucasus to the steppe? It does not appear in the Caucasus until the Kura-araxes culture, long after we see R1b in the steppe. Earlier in the chalcolithic the predominate haplogroup in Armenia is L1a and we find steppe ancestry in both populations. CHG's also had y-dna J2 and likewise the spread of CHG ancestry south of the Caucasus follows the spread of J2, yet we find no J2 in the steppe. The Shulaveri-Shomu culture would be old enough to have been responsible for bringing R1b to the steppe, but we do not know their y-dna as far as I know.


I avoid talking about what I think. Unadmixed with what? Unadmixed with Iran Neolithic, theoretically yes. Btw, also not 'on its own'.

I don't know what language Peloponnese Neolithic people spoke and concerning the Linear A language(s) the theories that have been proposed are: 1) Anatolian, 2) Greek or Greek-like, 3) Semitic, 4) distinct IE clade, 5) Indo-Iranian, 6) Tyrsenian etc.

The steppe-like admixture that increases doesn't mean anything, if IE languages were already in Balkans and Central Europe before the expansions from the steppe.


Yes, or more precisely CHG ancestry. Lazardis doesn't offer any model for EHG entering Greece without the CHG component entering in tandem and we see much greater levels in Yamnaya ancestry in populations surrounding the north of Greece than we do EHG ancestry.

Also Peloponnese Neolithic did not have CHG so I should have not included them when mentioning Minoans, the CHG element in Greece did not appear until much later. I know Renfrew believes Minoan might have been IE, but he suggests it's entrance around the same time as we see Peloponnese Neolithic which lacks CHG ancestry. If Minoan is IE it means the ultimate origin of IE languages is likely the Caucasus and whatever impact the steppe harboring ancestry had in terms of linguistics in Greece during the Mycenaean era was less prominent, but that doesn't necessitate that the appearance "doesn't mean anything."
 
In the History of South-Eastern Europe of Mathiesen we have 1 individual that is R1b and H13, H13 is clearly a Caucasus maternal lineage so a CHG one. Maybe the anatolian hypothesis is correct for R1b expansion but IE languages is another story.
 
In the History of South-Eastern Europe of Mathiesen we have 1 individual that is R1b and H13, H13 is clearly a Caucasus maternal lineage so a CHG one. Maybe the anatolian hypothesis is correct for R1b expansion but IE languages is another story.

This guy is a pure WHG from before 7,500bc though, with no CHG ancestry. I remember them stating that Iron Gates HG's could be related to Anatolian HGs or a source population WHGs split from because of their mtdna, but the CHG ancestry isn't there.
 
This guy is a pure WHG from before 7,500bc though, with no CHG ancestry. I remember them stating that Iron Gates HG's could be related to Anatolian HGs or a source population WHGs split from because of their mtdna, but the CHG ancestry isn't there.

Hum, well that's interesting, i dont understand how could Villabruna individual with clear Magdalenian maternal lineage shows Middle-Eastern signals, just like Baltic HG, when the most geographical close Balkans HG or Danubian Fishermen, with clear Middle-East maternal signals would be pure WHG. Ukraine HG is pure EHG and Balkans HG is pure WHG but Baltic HG shows signals of CHG, coming through those pure european HG clusters ?

Kotias Klde is mtdna H13c and after Maciamo modern H13 is confine to Caucasus.
 
The Shulaveri-Shomu culture would be old enough to have been responsible for bringing R1b to the steppe, but we do not know their y-dna as far as I know.."

Yes. But we know their Mtdna: I1, H2, H15a1.
These mtdna are later associated with steppe.
Shulaveri were remarkable because of highly developement pastoral traits and very developed agricultural. My opinion is those pastoral traits, mostly on the cattle side, links them somehow to iron gates, ovogorata, in the balkans.
Shulaveri is key to unraveling this story.
http://r1b2westerneurope.blogs.sapo.pt/hagoshrim-6121
 
Yes, or more precisely CHG ancestry. Lazardis doesn't offer any model for EHG entering Greece without the CHG component entering in tandem and we see much greater levels in Yamnaya ancestry in populations surrounding the north of Greece than we do EHG ancestry.

Also Peloponnese Neolithic did not have CHG so I should have not included them when mentioning Minoans, the CHG element in Greece did not appear until much later. I know Renfrew believes Minoan might have been IE, but he suggests it's entrance around the same time as we see Peloponnese Neolithic which lacks CHG ancestry. If Minoan is IE it means the ultimate origin of IE languages is likely the Caucasus and whatever impact the steppe harboring ancestry had in terms of linguistics in Greece during the Mycenaean era was less prominent, but that doesn't necessitate that the appearance "doesn't mean anything."

It was Davidski's idea that Yamnaya was EHG + CHG while Lazaridis had said it was EHG and Iran Chalcolithic or EHG + CHG + Iran Chalcolithic if I remember correctly.

Peloponnese Neolithic appeared to have some 'steppe' (steppe-like) admixture in Iain Mathieson, The Genomic History Of Southeastern Europe (see Extended Data figure 2) but Davidski and others said it wasn't real steppe admixture but CHG related. If that is wrong anything about that study can be wrong.

Concerning 'Minoans' if they were IE, either the Anatolian Neolithic/EEF or the CHG component or both were associated with early IE and if they weren't at least one of them wasn't.

My first option was to connect IE languages to Anatolian and European Neolithic but if 10% admixture is enough to cause language shift the 'homeland' can be almost everywhere.
 
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You sure about that
i recall china was about to build a lifesize replica, a few years back that didnt get out of planning because it was too difficult.
if china cant build one now neither can africa.

I read a interesting book about some grooves in front of the great pyramid that run under a later building.
the author made a very good case for the use of ropes and pulleys that dropped weights down a hundred ft
shaft to lift blocks off of boats on a canal at giza.
i cant think of the name of it right now but i thought it was very interesting his second book too was all about
crystal lenses and ancient telescopes. well worth a look at.
but the experts dismiss his idea for a drainage channel used to drain water from the building. Even though it slopes
the wrong way lol.

Reply to davef #66
 
My issue with this is what group would have brought R1b from the Caucasus to the steppe? It does not appear in the Caucasus until the Kura-araxes culture, long after we see R1b in the steppe. Earlier in the chalcolithic the predominate haplogroup in Armenia is L1a and we find steppe ancestry in both populations. CHG's also had y-dna J2 and likewise the spread of CHG ancestry south of the Caucasus follows the spread of J2, yet we find no J2 in the steppe. The Shulaveri-Shomu culture would be old enough to have been responsible for bringing R1b to the steppe, but we do not know their y-dna as far as I know.
Yes indeed, R1b-L23 split 6.1 ka into the Yamna R1b-Z2106 and R1b-L51 which brought IE to western Europe.
I can't think of any other origin of R1b-L23 than eastern Europe.
Actually, all subclades downstream of R1b1a-L754 seem originated in eastern Europe.

So IE must have been in eastern Europe by 6.1 ka the latest - I'd even say 6.4 ka when R1b-M269 split, because the other branch of R1b-M269 was probably also IE.
Yet anciant DNA doesn't show any significant other Y-DNA in eastern Europe coming from south of the Caucasus.
We don't know the Y-DNA of Maykop, but that was later than 6.1 ka anyway.

The subclades of R1b-M269 found in Armenia are dated after the replacement of Yamna folks by Corded Ware folks.
 
Shulaveri Shomu timelines are perfect to explain most of the events and doubts we have. Lets see what will turn out of it. So far mtdna I1, H2 +152, H15a1 does tell us they had a different history than the rest of causasus, iran and even anatolia per se.
Of course i am all about Sulaveri....so yes very bias. :)
 
It was Davidski's idea that Yamnaya was EHG + CHG while Lazaridis had said it was EHG and Iran Neolithic or EHG + CHG + Iran Neolithic if I remember correctly.

Peloponnese Neolithic appeared to have some 'steppe' (steppe-like) admixture in Iain Mathieson, The Genomic History Of Southeastern Europe (see Extended Data figure 2) but Davidski and others said it wasn't real steppe admixture but CHG related. If that is wrong anything about that study can be wrong.

Concerning 'Minoans' if they were IE, either the Anatolian Neolithic/EEF or the CHG component or both were associated with early IE and if they weren't at least one of them wasn't.

My first option was to connect IE languages to Anatolian and European Neolithic but if 10% admixture is enough to cause language shift the 'homeland' can be almost everywhere.

I highly doubt Davidski was the original progenitor of this theory, I remember Lazaridis referring to yamnaya as EHG + something CHG or IranNeo like. CHG is the most likely candidate since it is located at an immediate position to the steppe as opposed to IranNeo which would have to cross the Caucasus (without coming in contact with CHG in the first scenario) and made a more challenging journey. If anything the options would be EHG+CHG or EHG+CHG+IranNeo.

Earlier Peloponnese Neolithic from before 5000bc has no CHG related ancestry (Lazaridis groups her with northern Greece even though she is from Alepotrypa Cave, she's not in Mathieson). Then in Mathieson we can see around 4000bc what appears to be small amounts of something CHG related starting to appear in the same location in the Diros caves, but this component is completely absent at the same time period just a bit north on the southern shores of Argolis. It could be real, but it did not come from the original Peloponnese Neolithic, it was arrived later on and not very much of it arrived either. In this situation Peloponnese Neolithic originally lacked CHG ancestry and it only possibly began to appear incrementally on the southern peninsulas of the Peloponnese some time after it appears in Anatolia around 4000bc. So far the Bronze age samples from Anatolia have no steppe ancestry, but none of them are specifically linked to IE cultures either so we don't know what kind of linguistic change this could have brought.
 
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Yes. But we know their Mtdna: I1, H2, H15a1. These mtdna are later associated with steppe. Shulaveri were remarkable because of highly developement pastoral traits and very developed agricultural. My opinion is those pastoral traits, mostly on the cattle side, links them somehow to iron gates, ovogorata, in the balkans. Shulaveri is key to unraveling this story. http://r1b2westerneurope.blogs.sapo.pt/hagoshrim-6121
Does the study it's from mention the possibility of Shulaveri bringing these maternal ancestries to the steppe? Also what groups have their mtdna? I know an individual from Srubnaya had a mtdna downstream I1.
 
Ygorcs

we do not speak about the word computer here
we speak about a tree that was in Europe
and people, either Neolithic either IE eat it and new it before Aristoteles made his taxonomy and before Roman empire

But that's not relevant. Loanwords, especially and above all loanwards related to animals and plants, have been happening for thousands of years even when the language itself already has a native term to a similar subspecies or even to the same being. That doesn't even seem to be the case of chestnuts. The cultivation of chestnuts in Europe apparently dates to around 2,000 BC and the variants of the plant seem to have come from Turkey. It was also a very common food staple only in Southern Europe, beginning in the Balkans. Thus a Proto-Greek origin of the word is nothing but unsurprising. There is not only historic evidence for "chestnut, castaña, kastánea" being only loanwords, there are also solid linguistic bases. Following normal sound changes since PIE times, Greek "kastánea" should not give us English "chest[nut]" nor Latin "castanea", almost exactly the same word. This is enough for us to exclude the possibility of this word being very ancient in IE languages of different branches.
 
Does the study it's from mention the possibility of Shulaveri bringing these maternal ancestries to the steppe? Also what groups have their mtdna? I know an individual from Srubnaya had a mtdna downstream I1.

*No other west asian group has this Mtdna.
*no Anatolian group has this Mtdna.
*No Iranian group has this Mtdna.
*later groups having this are : Yamnaya, Bell beakers, Unitece (i1), and H2 is more ubiquitous, even in eastern europe, and H15 is also seen in Yamanya .

Funny is ancestralJourneys, always so quick at adding new aDna, hasn t yet inserted the Shulaveri Dna in her website.... coverage was good enough to make Ian logans database, hence pretty good Dna coverage. Now imagine why she doesnt! :=)
 

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