Looks very suspiciously pseudo-scientific to me.
Romanian a Daco-Thracian language, not coming directly from Latin, even though the regular sound rules of Romanian almost all lead to a huge vocabulary that is identical (not similar, identical) to Vulgar Latin forms?
Should we then really assume the very convenient and also totally improbable hypothesis that Latin simply preserved the exact same lexical forms of a previous "Proto-Italo-Celtic-Thraco-Illyrian" certainly spoken more than 1,500 years earlier?
And Dacian being grouped together with Illyrian as one and the same language family, instead of being grouped only with its closely related sibling Thracian?
And the statement that Illyrian was actually very close to Italic even though linguists consider that there was strong satemization in Illyrian?
And if Dacian and Thracian and Illyrian are all part of one common branch that is actually very closely related to Italic, then where did Albanian come from if not from Illyrians, from Dacians or from Thracians of the past (these 3 are all the most plausible alternative hypothesis for its origin)? After all, we know that Albanian's lexical origins are closer to Balto-Slavic, Greek and Germanic than to Italic and Celtic.
Well, we can say that this is a hypothesis by one linguist whose name also looks suspiciously Romanian and probably may have nationalist aims to portray his people's language as "indigenous" to the area, but still we can't say that this is a "most recent theory". It's not well supported by a large number of linguists, and in his text itself he makes it clear that he is contradicting and challenging what many or most linguists consider true. A "theory" is, well, a theory, not just a fringe hypothesis.