Ygorcs
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You know why I care? [I have chosen not to learn my haplogroup, btw because I consider it largely irrelevant.] But, apart from the Polish blogger and his highly patriarchal warrior pastoralists there were people who were saying things like:
"The survival of the indigenous language would have been the most likely scenario if the IE/R1b invaders were predominantly men. An army of adventurous Celtic men riding horses and equipped with bronze weapons could have butchered a substantial part of the Neolithic Iberian male population and taken their women. As good conquerors they would have taken many wives or concubines each (polygamy), having a great many children each, which helped the spread of R1b Y-DNA lineages (see How did R1b become dominant in Western Europe)"
That person never thought that his haplogroup wasn't originally Celtic or PIE-related and that the Basques could have retained more or less their original language.
Ossetians on the other hand, for example, had to have been 'iranized'.
And the truth is a Neolithic -or earlier- origin for Western European R1b (maybe apart from U-106) is still possible. Certainly they weren't Megalithic builders but how many Cardium Neolithic samples exist? Maybe it moved in Europe with E-V13 and related lineages or was here before the Neolithic. [If you sample Megalithic builders you will find Megalithic builders]
So this scenario would imply that Indo-Europeanization (not just in language, but in many other aspects of culture) would've happened with virtually no genetic impact all in Neolithic-type populations which most likely had a low population density, where even a few thousands of warriors could make a huge long-term impact (so comparisons with Turkish in Turkey are unwarranted, especially because even there, a hugely populated medieval country, we can detect a genetic impact of at least 20% to 30% if you consider the Turks didn't come directly from Northeast Asia, but from Turkmenistan/Uzbekistan).
I can't find that more plausible and realistic than the opposite, more mainstream hypothesis, especially since we have until now found quite a lot of very ancient R1b-M269 far away from Western Europe (and those we found almost all date from the Middle Bronze Age onwards, when coincidentally or not steppe admixture starts to appear in a lot of Western European places), and no R1b-M269 has been found in Western Europe dating to before the Copper Age (other clades of R1b don't really count here).
We'd have to just imagine the possibility of many R1b-M269 being found eventually, while we totally ignore those that already exist and the fact they exist right where the patterns of spread of steppe-related admixture and star-like expansion of IE languages seem to have happened... I don't know...
I don't say the R1b-L51 came necessarily right from the steppes, but it certainly had something to do with that profound cultural change in the Bronze Age and the subsequent attestation of so many IE languages everywhere in Central/West Europe, even if it were just an Eastern European, maybe Balkanic branch of males that were fully Indo-Europeanized early on.