Northern and Central Illyrians could lack I2a-Din (I somehow doubt they lacked I2 entirely, though it could not have been among their main Y-DNA haplogroup), but still be autosomally more northern in terms of admixture distribution than their southern counterparts in Greece, Macedonia and Albania, especially if (as I think it's likely) they had been subject to much more northern influences than people in South Balkans (Illyrians in the northern areas are actually supposed to be part of the Hallstatt cultural zone, for example). They could have just had a different history of success and failure in male lineages, but that does not tell us much about their entire ancestral history (for example Basques are overwhelmingly R1b-L51 and Irish people, too, but the latter have very much more BA Steppe ancestry). I won't say all or even most of that "Polish affinity" can be explained this way, but I'd bet that some of it can.