Admit what? What are you trying to prove? I dont get it...
She doesn't want to prove anything while you who are probably a West Asian living in Germany is quite blatant what you are desperately trying to prove.
Follow along with the video below to see how to install our site as a web app on your home screen.
Note: This feature currently requires accessing the site using the built-in Safari browser.
Admit what? What are you trying to prove? I dont get it...
Etruscan archaeological findings have not more similarities with contemporary and earlier cultures in West Asia than Greek archaeological findings and other contemporary civilizations have similarities with contemporary and earlier cultures in West Asia.
The Etruscan alphabet comes from the Greek Alphabet, that has Phoenician origins, was not even born in West Asia, and Lemnos has ties to the Greek world.
Rather it is also true the opposite, West Asia in that historical period is also deeply influenced by what comes from the west. So much so that the Phrygians come from the Balkans and the Greeks themselves settle in Anatolia.
Well, ultimately the WHG also came from West Asia... This kind of discusson over who's reeeeeeallly native is always circular if a specific timeline is not defined, it can be endless.
She doesn't want to prove anything while you who are probably a West Asian living in Germany is quite blatant what you are desperately trying to prove.
Thats what I am saying, people should not talk about native to Italy, when the EEF are a population moved from West Asia. And what is trying to be proved, that the Etruscans lived 10.000 years ago in Italy, and their ancestors did not even make one migration out of Italy?
2 theories about etruscan origins are, they migrated after Croesus conquered the west asian greeks. The other is they come from one of the greek islands. I think it was called lemnos. This was speculated because etruscans wrote from right to left, and the greek inscriptions was found in that fashion on that island.
Now the question arises, why did the Etruscans develop such a high achieving civilization and not their neighbors?
Etruscan archaeological findings have not more similarities with contemporary and earlier cultures in West Asia than Greek archaeological findings and other contemporary civilizations have similarities with contemporary and earlier cultures in West Asia.
The Etruscan alphabet comes from the Greek Alphabet, that has Phoenician origins, was not even born in West Asia, and Lemnos has ties to the Greek world.
Rather it is also true the opposite, West Asia in that historical period is also deeply influenced by what comes from the west. So much so that the Phrygians come from the Balkans and the Greeks themselves settle in Anatolia.
However, I have to disagree slightly with Pax. I do think the Etruscan civilization at its zenith was more advanced than the Latin civilization of the same time period and certainly than the preceding Bronze Age cultures. We're talking about the Iron Age after all. That fact alone means it was more advanced. The Romans learned a lot from the Etruscans. It may be because the Etruscans had exposed themselves to, and absorbed more of the advancements which had made their way from the East through the Greeks, the Phoenicians, etc. before the Latins were exposed to them. The arteries were the trade routes. It was through them that ideas spread and improvements made as they spread. If you are isolated from these cross currents, or if you deliberately isolate yourself, you lose. You have to remain open even to your enemies' ideas.
Lemnos is a lovely island and while the two languages maybe similar, it is too small of an island to be the source of the Etruscan population.
Did the Lemnians have trade relationships with the Etruscans? Possibly.
Now the question arises, why did the Etruscans develop such a high achieving civilization and not their neighbors?
Lemnos was inhabited by the Thracian tribe of Sintians, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sintians, among other Greeks who probably settled in the Archaic Age.Lemnos, a Pelasgian island.
I do not understand why it sounds strange to some people that the Etruscan language was a pre-Indo-European language, when the Iberian Peninsula had long been dominated by pre-Indo-European languages and many people in Iberia still spoke a pre-Indo-European language around 300 BC! Were the Iberians of Pelasgian origin?
If I remember correctly about the Tartessians there are theories that want them of Middle Eastern origin, but perhaps they too were only pre-Indo-European.
Interesting however the numerous Phoenician and Greek colonies in Iberia.
Aquitanian, Proto-Basque, Iberian and Tartessian were all pre-Indo-European languages and still spoken around 300 BC.
Pre-Indo-European isn't really a valid category. Etruscan and Basque aren't related.
First they are not categories but linguistic families and I don't see the connection to what I wrote.
Etruscan and Basque are not considered related but we know little or nothing about the pre-Indo-European linguistic family, since the vast majority of pre-Indo-European languages died out before the spread of the alphabets.
We know enough about Etruscan. Even Venneman didn't include it in his Vasconic.
It has nothing to do with what I wrote. Since I am absolutely not suggesting that they were strictly connected.
This thread has been viewed 332814 times.